Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

The arthroscopic Remplissage procedure is utilized as an adjunct to a Bankart repair in cases of significant, engaging Hill-Sachs lesions without critical glenoid bone loss. Which anatomical structure is tenodesed into the humeral defect during this procedure?

A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a first-time seizure. His arm is locked in internal rotation and adduction. Radiographs reveal a posterior shoulder dislocation. A subsequent CT scan shows an anteromedial humeral head defect involving 30% of the articular surface. Following closed reduction, the shoulder remains unstable in internal rotation. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 20-year-old rugby player evaluates for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. MRI shows an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Based on the glenoid track concept, which of the following procedures is most appropriate to minimize the risk of recurrent instability?

A 23-year-old professional baseball pitcher complains of vague posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Physical examination reveals a 25-degree glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) compared to the contralateral side, and a positive peel-back sign on arthroscopic simulation. What is the recommended initial management?

A 20-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 32-year-old recreational volleyball player is diagnosed with a Type II SLAP tear. What differentiates a Type II from a Type I SLAP tear?

A 28-year-old male volleyball player presents with painless weakness in external rotation of his right shoulder. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which muscle is predominantly affected?

During a routine arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, a patient is noted to have an isolated, complete rupture of the subscapularis tendon. Which physical examination test would have been most definitively positive preoperatively?

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher reports deep shoulder pain during the late-cocking phase of throwing. He demonstrates a positive O'Brien test and a positive pronated load test. What is the most likely pathophysiologic mechanism of this injury?

A 28-year-old professional tennis player presents with right shoulder pain. Physical examination reveals a glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees compared to the contralateral side, alongside normal overall arc of motion. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?

A 21-year-old collegiate volleyball player complains of vague, deep posterior shoulder pain.

She has normal strength with shoulder abduction, but notable weakness with external rotation when the arm is positioned at the side. At which anatomic site is the affected nerve most likely compressed?

A 20-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan demonstrates 25% glenoid bone loss. Which surgical procedure is most indicated?

A 24-year-old elite baseball pitcher presents with vague, deep shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI confirms an isolated Type II SLAP tear. After confirming a glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD), what is the most appropriate initial management?

An elite overhead throwing athlete presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase. Which combination of intra-articular pathology is most characteristic of internal impingement?

A 26-year-old professional volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and profound weakness in external rotation.

MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which muscle would exhibit isolated weakness on clinical exam?

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Radiographs and a 3D CT scan demonstrate 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player presents with persistent deep shoulder pain and mechanical catching. An MRI arthrogram reveals an isolated Type II SLAP tear. After failing 6 months of physical therapy, operative intervention is selected. Which of the following procedures is most likely to yield the highest patient satisfaction and lowest reoperation rate?

A 20-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination demonstrates a 25-degree glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) compared to the contralateral shoulder. The pathophysiology of internal impingement in this athlete most likely involves abnormal contact between the posterosuperior labrum and the:

A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI arthrography reveals a partial-thickness articular-sided tear of the supraspinatus and posterosuperior labral fraying. What is the most likely pathomechanical cause of this condition?

A 19-year-old competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan demonstrates 22% anterior glenoid bone loss and a non-engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?