Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

A 20-year-old collegiate quarterback is undergoing evaluation for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Imaging demonstrates 15% anterior glenoid bone loss and a large Hill-Sachs lesion. Applying the 'glenoid track' concept, the Hill-Sachs lesion is determined to be 'off-track'. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 35-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a locked, painful shoulder following a severe generalized seizure. He holds his arm in internal rotation and adduction, and external rotation is physically blocked. Radiographs reveal a dislocation. What associated bony defect is most likely present?

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague, deep shoulder pain and a subjective decrease in pitching velocity. MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP tear. What biomechanical mechanism is primarily responsible for this specific injury in throwing athletes?

A surgeon is performing an open Latarjet procedure for a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability and significant glenoid bone loss. During the mobilization and transfer of the coracoid process, which nerve is at the highest risk of iatrogenic injury due to traction on the conjoint tendon?

A 20-year-old collegiate rugby player with recurrent anterior shoulder instability presents for evaluation. CT scan demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 38-year-old recreational weightlifter complains of deep anterior shoulder pain. MRI confirms an isolated Type II SLAP tear. After failing 6 months of physical therapy, surgical management is planned. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability is found to have an "off-track" Hill-Sachs lesion and 10% anterior glenoid bone loss on advanced imaging. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to prevent recurrent instability?

A 45-year-old male presents with severe shoulder pain and inability to externally rotate his arm after experiencing a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. An axillary radiograph reveals a posterior glenohumeral dislocation with an impaction fracture on the anteromedial aspect of the humeral head involving 30% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 22-year-old rugby player undergoes a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with 25% glenoid bone loss. Postoperatively, he demonstrates weakness in elbow flexion and decreased sensation over the lateral forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?

Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for recurrent shoulder dislocation following a primary traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation?

A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT reveals 25 percent anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to restore stability?

A 32-year-old recreational skier presents with anterior shoulder instability. Imaging shows an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion and 10 percent anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

When performing an arthroscopic Bankart repair, the anteroinferior labrum is mobilized and repaired. The suture anchors should ideally be placed at which location to maximize biomechanical stability?

A 20-year-old gymnast presents with multidirectional shoulder instability. She has failed 6 months of supervised physical therapy. An examination under anesthesia demonstrates 3+ inferior translation and a positive sulcus sign. What is the preferred surgical treatment?

A 25-year-old professional rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. CT imaging reveals 28% glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 45-year-old male presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation following a seizure. CT scan reveals a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 35% of the humeral head articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

Following an open Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, a patient complains of new-onset numbness along the lateral aspect of the forearm and weakness in elbow flexion. Which nerve was most likely injured during the coracoid transfer?

A 20-year-old male undergoes an MR arthrogram for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. The radiologist notes an intact anterior periosteal sleeve with the anterior labrum medially displaced and healed to the glenoid neck. This pathoanatomy is best described as a:

An 18-year-old athlete with recurrent anterior shoulder instability has a normal-appearing anterior labrum on MRI. However, a "J-sign" is noted on the MR arthrogram, showing fluid extravasation into the axillary pouch. Which of the following lesions is most likely present?

A 17-year-old female gymnast complains of bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of the shoulders 'sliding out' of joint. Exam reveals a positive sulcus sign, anterior apprehension, and generalized ligamentous laxity (Beighton score 7/9). What is the most appropriate initial treatment?