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Question 1001

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with isolated weakness of external rotation of the shoulder. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. If the cyst is located strictly at the spinoglenoid notch, which muscle will show denervation changes on EMG?

. Supraspinatus only
. Infraspinatus only
. Both supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Infraspinatus only


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch results in isolated infraspinatus weakness, whereas compression at the suprascapular notch affects both.

Question 1002

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old laborer has a massive, irreparable subscapularis tendon tear. He presents with severe weakness in internal rotation, a positive belly-press test, and pain. Which of the following tendon transfers is the most appropriate surgical option to restore function?

. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Lower trapezius transfer
. Pectoralis major transfer
. Teres major transfer
. Biceps rerouting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis major transfer


Explanation

A pectoralis major tendon transfer is the procedure of choice for irreparable subscapularis tears to restore active internal rotation and dynamic anterior joint stability. Latissimus dorsi and lower trapezius transfers are indicated for irreparable posterosuperior (supraspinatus/infraspinatus) tears.

Question 1003

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

When performing an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, aggressive medial mobilization of a chronically retracted supraspinatus tendon places the suprascapular nerve at greatest risk of traction injury at which anatomic location?

. Spinoglenoid notch
. Suprascapular notch
. Base of the coracoid process
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve is firmly tethered at the suprascapular notch beneath the superior transverse scapular ligament. Excessive medial mobilization (>3 cm) of a retracted supraspinatus tendon risks traction injury to the nerve at this location.

Question 1004

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

According to the Goutallier classification evaluated on non-contrast CT or MRI, which stage of fatty infiltration in the rotator cuff musculature represents an equal amount of fat and muscle tissue?

. Stage 1
. Stage 2
. Stage 3
. Stage 4
. Stage 5

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stage 3


Explanation

Goutallier Stage 3 is characterized by an equal amount of fat and muscle tissue within the muscle belly. Stage 1 has fatty streaks, Stage 2 has more muscle than fat, and Stage 4 has more fat than muscle.

Question 1005

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In the transverse plane of the shoulder, the dynamic glenohumeral force couple that acts to compress and stabilize the humeral head against the glenoid during active motion is primarily formed by the:

. Supraspinatus and deltoid
. Subscapularis and infraspinatus/teres minor
. Latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major
. Biceps and triceps
. Coracobrachialis and short head of biceps

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis and infraspinatus/teres minor


Explanation

In the transverse plane, the anterior subscapularis and the posterior infraspinatus and teres minor form a critical force couple. This balances the joint, compressing and centering the humeral head within the glenoid during motion.

Question 1006

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Following an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, a patient develops severe, global shoulder stiffness and pain out of proportion to the surgical intervention. Inflammatory markers are completely normal. What is the most effective initial management for this condition?

. Immediate arthroscopic lysis of adhesions
. Oral corticosteroids and gentle physical therapy
. Manipulation under anesthesia
. Intra-articular hyaluronic acid injection
. Revision rotator cuff repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Oral corticosteroids and gentle physical therapy


Explanation

Postoperative adhesive capsulitis following rotator cuff repair is initially best managed conservatively. A short course of oral corticosteroids and a structured physical therapy program focusing on gentle stretching is highly effective and avoids compromising the repair.

Question 1007

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old male presents with weakness in external rotation and a massive, retracted posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. Retraction of the supraspinatus tendon medial to the glenoid rim is most likely to cause traction injury to the suprascapular nerve at which of the following anatomical locations?

. Spinoglenoid notch
. Suprascapular notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular space
. Spiral groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

Massive, retracted rotator cuff tears alter the course of the suprascapular nerve. This increases tension primarily at the suprascapular notch due to medial tethering, contributing to nerve dysfunction and subsequent fatty infiltration.

Question 1008

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with shoulder pain. MRI arthrography reveals a partial articular-sided supraspinatus tendon avulsion (PASTA) involving 60% of the tendon footprint. After failing nonoperative management, what is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Debridement of the rotator cuff tear alone
. Subacromial decompression without cuff repair
. In situ repair or completion of the tear followed by formal repair
. Biceps tenodesis alone
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. In situ repair or completion of the tear followed by formal repair


Explanation

For partial articular-sided rotator cuff tears involving greater than 50% of the tendon thickness (or >3-6 mm of the footprint), surgical repair is indicated. This can be successfully performed via an in situ transtendon repair or by completing the tear and performing a standard repair.

Question 1009

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During the physical examination of a patient with suspected rotator cuff pathology, the examiner performs the "belly-press" test. The patient is unable to maintain pressure on their abdomen without bringing their elbow posterior to the mid-coronal plane. This finding indicates weakness of which muscle?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis
. Pectoralis major

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subscapularis


Explanation

The belly-press test evaluates the integrity of the subscapularis muscle. A positive test occurs when the patient drops their elbow posteriorly to use shoulder extension (latissimus dorsi/posterior deltoid) rather than internal rotation to press against the abdomen.

Question 1010

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, an anatomic restoration of the footprint is desired. The normal supraspinatus footprint on the greater tuberosity has an average medial-to-lateral width of approximately:

. 8 to 10 mm
. 14 to 16 mm
. 22 to 24 mm
. 26 to 28 mm
. 30 to 32 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 14 to 16 mm


Explanation

The supraspinatus footprint is triangular and measures approximately 25 mm in the anterior-to-posterior dimension and 14 to 16 mm in the medial-to-lateral dimension. Restoring this medial-to-lateral width is a primary goal of transosseous-equivalent double-row repair.

Question 1011

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and weakness. On examination, he is unable to hold his hand pressed against his abdomen when the elbow is brought anterior to the coronal plane. This finding (a positive Bear-hug or Belly-press test) is most sensitive for detecting a tear of which portion of the rotator cuff?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Upper subscapularis
. Lower subscapularis
. Teres minor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lower subscapularis


Explanation

The Belly-press and Bear-hug tests are highly sensitive for detecting tears of the upper portion of the subscapularis tendon. The Lift-off test is more specific for tears involving the lower portion of the subscapularis.

Question 1012

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 68-year-old woman with a massive, retracted rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus and entire infraspinatus presents with 'pseudoparalysis' of forward elevation. In the setting of an intact subscapularis, this pseudoparalysis indicates a disruption of which biomechanical force couple?

. Coronal plane force couple (Deltoid and inferior rotator cuff)
. Transverse plane force couple (Subscapularis and infraspinatus)
. Sagittal plane force couple (Pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi)
. Scapulothoracic force couple (Trapezius and serratus anterior)
. Axial plane force couple (Teres major and teres minor)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coronal plane force couple (Deltoid and inferior rotator cuff)


Explanation

The coronal plane force couple consists of the deltoid (creating a superior sheer force) and the inferior rotator cuff (creating an inferior compressive force). Disruption of the inferior cuff (infraspinatus/teres minor) allows unopposed superior migration by the deltoid, resulting in pseudoparalysis.

Question 1013

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

When evaluating a patient for a rotator cuff repair, preoperative MRI is used to assess muscle quality via the Goutallier classification. Which Goutallier stage is defined as having equal amounts of fat and muscle within the rotator cuff muscle belly?

. Stage 1
. Stage 2
. Stage 3
. Stage 4
. Stage 5

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Stage 4


Explanation

In the Goutallier classification of fatty infiltration: Stage 1 is some fatty streaks; Stage 2 is more muscle than fat; Stage 3 is equal amounts of fat and muscle; and Stage 4 is more fat than muscle. Stages 3 and 4 generally portend poor structural outcomes after repair.

Question 1014

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The rotator cuff interval is a triangular anatomic space in the anterior shoulder bounded by the supraspinatus superiorly, the subscapularis inferiorly, and the coracoid process medially. Which of the following structures passes through this interval?

. Short head of the biceps tendon
. Coracoacromial ligament
. Long head of the biceps tendon
. Axillary nerve
. Middle glenohumeral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long head of the biceps tendon


Explanation

The rotator cuff interval contains the long head of the biceps tendon, the coracohumeral ligament (CHL), and the superior glenohumeral ligament (SGHL). It is bordered by the supraspinatus, subscapularis, and the base of the coracoid.

Question 1015

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Massive retraction of a supraspinatus tear medial to the glenoid rim significantly increases the risk of traction neuropathy to the suprascapular nerve. At which anatomic location does this traction most commonly tether and compress the nerve?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Coracoid process

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

When the supraspinatus tendon retracts medially, it creates an abnormal traction force on the suprascapular nerve as it passes under the transverse scapular ligament at the suprascapular notch. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch more commonly affects the infraspinatus branch only (e.g., from a paralabral cyst).

Question 1016

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old elite tennis player presents with a PASTA (Partial Articular Supraspinatus Tendon Avulsion) lesion involving 60% of the tendon footprint depth. He has failed 6 months of conservative management. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic debridement alone
. Subacromial decompression alone
. In situ repair or tear completion and repair
. Biceps tenodesis
. Latissimus dorsi transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. In situ repair or tear completion and repair


Explanation

For high-grade articular-sided partial rotator cuff tears (involving >50% of the tendon thickness), surgical intervention typically requires either tear completion and formal repair, or an in situ repair, to adequately restore footprint biomechanics.

Question 1017

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, extensive medial mobilization of a massive, chronically retracted supraspinatus tear is required. Which neurological structure is at greatest risk of injury during this mobilization, particularly if releasing the coracohumeral ligament near the base of the coracoid?

. Axillary nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve
. Long thoracic nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular nerve


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve is at risk during extensive medial mobilization of the supraspinatus and release around the superior transverse scapular ligament. It courses approximately 1-2 cm medial to the superior glenoid rim at the base of the coracoid process.

Question 1018

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

According to the Goutallier classification for rotator cuff fatty infiltration evaluated on MRI, a supraspinatus muscle belly that demonstrates equal amounts of fat and muscle tissue is classified as:

. Grade 0
. Grade 1
. Grade 2
. Grade 3
. Grade 4

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Grade 3


Explanation

In the Goutallier classification, Grade 1 represents fatty streaks; Grade 2 is more muscle than fat; Grade 3 exhibits equal amounts of fat and muscle; and Grade 4 is more fat than muscle. Grades 3 and 4 generally indicate a poor prognosis for successful structural repair.

Question 1019

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old recreational weightlifter feels a sharp pop in his anterior shoulder during a heavy bench press. Exam reveals increased passive external rotation and a distinctly positive belly-press test.

What other associated pathology must the surgeon be highly suspicious of during arthroscopic evaluation?

. Anterior Bankart lesion
. Long head of the biceps tendon subluxation or dislocation
. Posterior labral tear
. Suprascapular neuropathy
. Acromioclavicular joint separation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Long head of the biceps tendon subluxation or dislocation


Explanation

The clinical findings suggest an acute subscapularis tendon tear. Because the subscapularis forms the medial wall of the bicipital groove and contributes significantly to the biceps sling, its disruption is highly associated with medial subluxation or dislocation of the long head of the biceps tendon.

Question 1020

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Advanced imaging reveals an 'inverted-pear' shaped glenoid. At what threshold of glenoid bone loss is an arthroscopic Bankart repair generally contraindicated in favor of a bony augmentation procedure like the Latarjet?

. 5%
. 10%
. 15%
. Greater than 20-25%
. Greater than 40%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Greater than 20-25%


Explanation

Glenoid bone loss exceeding 20-25% drastically alters the concavity-compression mechanism of the shoulder. Arthroscopic soft-tissue stabilization alone has an unacceptably high failure rate in this setting, making bone-block augmentation (e.g., Latarjet) the standard of care.