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Question 1261

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old volleyball player complains of isolated, painless weakness in external rotation of her dominant shoulder. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following physical examination findings is most likely present?

. Positive lift-off test
. Positive Jobe (empty can) test
. Isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus
. Weakness in both abduction and external rotation
. Positive belly-press test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Positive lift-off test


Explanation

A cyst at the spinoglenoid notch typically compresses the suprascapular nerve after it has innervated the supraspinatus. This results in isolated denervation and subsequent atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle.

Question 1262

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 19-year-old gymnast presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of "slipping." Examination shows a sulcus sign of 2 cm bilaterally, positive apprehension, and generalized ligamentous laxity. There is no history of a distinct traumatic dislocation. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Arthroscopic thermal capsulorrhaphy
. Physical therapy focusing on periscapular and rotator cuff strengthening
. Immobilization in external rotation for 4 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

Multidirectional instability (MDI) is typically atraumatic and bilateral, characterized by generalized laxity. The mainstay of initial treatment is a prolonged course (minimum 3-6 months) of structured physical therapy focusing on dynamic stabilizers.

Question 1263

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A patient with a massive rotator cuff tear demonstrates "pseudoparalysis" of the shoulder, being unable to actively elevate the arm past 60 degrees. Anesthetic injection into the subacromial space does not improve active motion. What is the primary biomechanical deficit in this shoulder?

. Loss of the anterior coronal force couple
. Loss of the transverse and coronal force couples
. Isolated loss of the subscapularis function
. Complete axillary nerve palsy
. Deltoid detachment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of the anterior coronal force couple


Explanation

Pseudoparalysis in massive rotator cuff tears occurs due to the loss of the coronal and transverse force couples. This prevents the humeral head from being compressed into the glenoid, allowing the deltoid to cause superior migration rather than elevation.

Question 1264

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During an arthroscopic anterior stabilization procedure, the surgeon identifies an avulsion of the anterior labrum where the intact anterior scapular periosteum has stripped and displaced medially on the glenoid neck. What is the correct term for this lesion?

. Bankart lesion
. ALPSA (Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion) lesion
. GLAD (Glenolabral Articular Disruption) lesion
. HAGL (Humeral Avulsion of the Glenohumeral Ligament) lesion
. Perthes lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bankart lesion


Explanation

An ALPSA lesion involves an anterior labral tear where the scapular periosteum remains intact but strips medially. It allows the labroligamentous complex to heal in an incompetent, medially displaced position and must be mobilized laterally during repair.

Question 1265

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In the context of anterior shoulder instability, the "glenoid track" concept is used to determine whether a Hill-Sachs lesion will engage. Which of the following correctly defines an "off-track" Hill-Sachs lesion?

. The medial margin of the Hill-Sachs lesion is lateral to the glenoid track
. The medial margin of the Hill-Sachs lesion is medial to the glenoid track
. The lateral margin of the Hill-Sachs lesion is medial to the glenoid track
. The lesion involves strictly the articular cartilage
. The lesion is entirely within the expected contact area of the glenoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The medial margin of the Hill-Sachs lesion is lateral to the glenoid track


Explanation

An "off-track" Hill-Sachs lesion has a medial margin that extends further medial than the medial margin of the glenoid track. This lesion will engage the anterior glenoid rim during abduction and external rotation, often necessitating a remplissage.

Question 1266

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A superior capsular reconstruction (SCR) is planned for a 55-year-old laborer with an irreparable, massive supraspinatus and infraspinatus tear. To optimize the biomechanical success of the SCR, which of the following native structures MUST be intact or repairable?

. Biceps long head tendon
. Subscapularis tendon
. Teres minor tendon
. Coracoacromial ligament
. Glenohumeral middle ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biceps long head tendon


Explanation

Superior capsular reconstruction acts to tether the humeral head and prevent superior migration. For it to function correctly and restore glenohumeral kinematics, the anterior structures, specifically the subscapularis tendon, must be intact or fully repairable.

Question 1267

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player sustains a fourth anterior shoulder dislocation. A 3D CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss with an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate to minimize the risk of recurrent instability?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open Bankart repair
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet procedure)
. Arthroscopic Remplissage
. Inferior capsular shift

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure is indicated for patients with critical anterior glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%), especially in high-demand contact athletes. Soft tissue procedures alone, such as an arthroscopic Bankart repair, have an unacceptably high failure rate in the setting of significant bone loss.

Question 1268

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old man presents with persistent shoulder pain and profound weakness 3 weeks after an acute, first-time anterior glenohumeral dislocation. The dislocation was reduced in the emergency department, and radiographs confirm a concentric joint. Which of the following is the most common associated injury responsible for his current symptoms?

. Axillary nerve injury
. Brachial plexus neurapraxia
. Bankart lesion
. Rotator cuff tear
. Proximal humerus fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve injury


Explanation

In patients older than 40 years of age, the incidence of a concomitant rotator cuff tear with a first-time anterior dislocation is extremely high (up to 30-80%). Persistent pain and weakness after reduction in this age group should prompt an MRI to evaluate the rotator cuff.

Question 1269

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old man presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation after a generalized seizure. CT scan reveals an anterior articular impaction fracture (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 35% of the humeral head articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

. Closed reduction and immobilization in internal rotation
. Open reduction and transfer of the subscapularis/lesser tuberosity into the defect
. Latarjet procedure
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction and immobilization in internal rotation


Explanation

A modified McLaughlin procedure (transfer of the subscapularis tendon with or without the lesser tuberosity into the defect) is indicated for reverse Hill-Sachs lesions involving 20% to 40% of the articular surface. Defects >40-50% generally require arthroplasty.

Question 1270

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 29-year-old male weightlifter complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and selective weakness in external rotation. An MRI reveals an isolated paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch with associated muscle edema. The cyst most likely originated from which of the following?

. Superior labral tear from anterior to posterior (SLAP)
. Anterior Bankart lesion
. Posterior labral tear
. Subscapularis tear
. Coracoacromial ligament disruption

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior labral tear from anterior to posterior (SLAP)


Explanation

Paralabral cysts at the spinoglenoid notch cause isolated suprascapular nerve compression affecting only the infraspinatus (weakness in external rotation). These cysts are highly associated with adjacent posterior labral tears.

Question 1271

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 48-year-old man falls on an outstretched arm and is diagnosed with an isolated, complete rupture of the subscapularis tendon. Which of the following physical examination findings is most specific for this injury?

. Positive Jobe's test
. Positive Bear-hug test
. Positive Hornblower's sign
. Positive Neer impingement sign
. Positive Speed's test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Positive Jobe's test


Explanation

The bear-hug test, along with the belly-press and lift-off tests, specifically evaluates the integrity of the subscapularis. Hornblower's sign evaluates the teres minor, while Jobe's test evaluates the supraspinatus.

Question 1272

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

When evaluating a patient with a massive rotator cuff tear for a potential surgical repair, which of the following preoperative MRI findings is the strongest predictor of structural failure after repair?

. Patient age > 65 years
. Tear size > 3 cm
. Acromiohumeral interval of 9 mm
. Goutallier grade 3 fatty infiltration of the infraspinatus
. Concomitant biceps tenodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patient age > 65 years


Explanation

Advanced fatty infiltration (Goutallier grade 3 or 4) indicates irreversible muscle atrophy and is the strongest predictor of clinical and structural failure following rotator cuff repair. Acromiohumeral intervals less than 7 mm also portend a poor prognosis.

Question 1273

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In the management of recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the "track" concept is used to evaluate interacting bone loss. An arthroscopic Bankart repair combined with an arthroscopic Remplissage is most appropriately indicated for which of the following scenarios?

. 10% glenoid bone loss with an off-track Hill-Sachs lesion
. 25% glenoid bone loss with an off-track Hill-Sachs lesion
. 15% glenoid bone loss with an on-track Hill-Sachs lesion
. 0% glenoid bone loss with an on-track Hill-Sachs lesion
. Multidirectional instability with generalized laxity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 10% glenoid bone loss with an off-track Hill-Sachs lesion


Explanation

An arthroscopic Remplissage (infraspinatus tenodesis into the defect) with Bankart repair is indicated for subcritical glenoid bone loss (<20%) combined with an off-track (engaging) Hill-Sachs lesion. Critical glenoid bone loss (>20-25%) requires a bone-block procedure like Latarjet.

Question 1274

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 16-year-old female gymnast complains of bilateral shoulder pain and a feeling of the shoulders "sliding out of joint." Examination shows a sulcus sign of 2+ bilaterally, hyperlaxity of the elbows and knees, and positive apprehension tests without a distinct history of trauma. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Open inferior capsular shift
. Physical therapy focusing on periscapular stabilization
. Coracoid transfer
. Arthroscopic thermal capsulorrhaphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

Multidirectional instability (MDI) typically presents with generalized laxity and atraumatic instability. The mainstay of initial treatment is a prolonged course (minimum 6 months) of physical therapy focusing on rotator cuff strengthening and periscapular stabilizers.

Question 1275

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old man undergoes an MRI arthrogram for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. The radiologist notes a "J-sign" on the coronal sequences, representing extravasation of contrast into the axillary recess. This imaging finding is pathognomonic for which of the following lesions?

. Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion
. Humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament (HAGL)
. ALPSA lesion
. GLAD lesion
. SLAP tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion


Explanation

The normal inferior glenohumeral ligament creates a U-shaped axillary pouch on MRI arthrogram. A humeral avulsion of the glenohumeral ligament (HAGL lesion) disrupts this pouch, causing contrast to leak inferiorly and forming a pathognomonic J-shape.

Question 1276

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The Latarjet procedure provides stability to the anterior shoulder through a "triple blocking" effect. While the osseous block provides static resistance, the dynamic sling effect in abduction and external rotation is provided by which of the following structures?

. Restoration of the glenoid articular arc
. The sling effect of the conjoint tendon
. Repair of the capsule to the native glenoid
. Tensioning of the coracoacromial ligament
. The osseous block of the transferred coracoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Restoration of the glenoid articular arc


Explanation

The Latarjet "triple block" consists of: 1) the bone block increasing the glenoid arc, 2) the dynamic sling effect of the conjoint tendon (short head of biceps and coracobrachialis) tensioning the inferior subscapularis, and 3) the capsule repair to the coracoacromial ligament.

Question 1277

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with superior shoulder pain and positive O'Brien and Speed's tests. MRI reveals an isolated Type II SLAP tear. Nonoperative management has failed. Based on current literature, which of the following surgical options offers the most reliable clinical outcome and highest rate of return to work for this patient?

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair
. Open SLAP repair
. Biceps tenotomy or tenodesis
. Arthroscopic labral debridement
. Subacromial decompression alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair


Explanation

In patients over 40 years old, particularly manual laborers, primary biceps tenodesis has been shown to yield more reliable pain relief and a higher rate of return to previous activity levels compared to arthroscopic SLAP repair, which has a higher complication and stiffness rate in this demographic.

Question 1278

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

According to the suspension bridge biomechanical model of the rotator cuff proposed by Burkhart, stress is effectively transmitted across the crescent area of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus insertions by a thickened band of capsular tissue. What is this structure called?

. Coracohumeral ligament
. Rotator cable
. Superior glenohumeral ligament
. Transverse humeral ligament
. Conjoint tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Coracohumeral ligament


Explanation

The rotator cable is a thickened band of tissue that spans from the coracohumeral ligament to the infraspinatus. It acts like a suspension bridge to stress-shield the thinner avascular crescent area of the rotator cuff insertion.

Question 1279

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which of the following is considered the most accurate and reliable imaging method for preoperative quantification of glenoid bone loss in a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability?

. 3D CT scan with en face view and best-fit circle
. Standard AP radiograph
. Axillary lateral radiograph
. MRI with intra-articular contrast
. Dynamic fluoroscopy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 3D CT scan with en face view and best-fit circle


Explanation

A 3D CT scan with digital subtraction of the humeral head to provide an en face view of the glenoid is the gold standard. The best-fit circle method is used over the inferior portion of the glenoid to quantify the percentage of anterior bone loss.

Question 1280

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During an open approach for a massive rotator cuff tear, the surgeon must mobilize the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons. Excessive medial traction can cause a stretch injury to the suprascapular nerve. Which of the following accurately describes the anatomic path of this nerve?

. It passes superior to the transverse scapular ligament.
. It passes inferior to the transverse scapular ligament and inferior to the spinoglenoid ligament.
. It innervates the teres minor.
. It provides sensory innervation to the lateral arm.
. It passes superior to both the transverse scapular and spinoglenoid ligaments.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It passes superior to the transverse scapular ligament.


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve passes through the suprascapular notch inferior to the transverse scapular ligament, and then through the spinoglenoid notch inferior to the spinoglenoid ligament. The suprascapular artery travels superior to the transverse scapular ligament ("Army over, Navy under").