Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

A 24-year-old professional rugby player presents with a history of five anterior shoulder dislocations. A 3D CT scan of the shoulder reveals 28% anterior glenoid bone loss and a concomitant engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. He wishes to return to professional contact sports. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan of the shoulder demonstrates 28% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate to prevent recurrent dislocation?

A 22-year-old rugby player undergoes surgical stabilization for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Intraoperatively, he is noted to have an off-track, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion with subcritical glenoid bone loss. The surgeon decides to perform an arthroscopic Bankart repair with a remplissage. Which structure(s) is/are tenodesed into the humeral head defect during a remplissage?

A 48-year-old manual laborer presents with anterior shoulder pain and popping. MRI arthrogram demonstrates an isolated Type II SLAP lesion. He has no other rotator cuff pathology. After 4 months of failed physical therapy, surgical intervention is planned. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure for this patient?

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination reveals a significant loss of internal rotation (GIRD) and a positive relocation test. MRI shows undersurface fraying of the posterior supraspinatus and anterior superior labrum. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He exhibits Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD). MRI arthrogram reveals a partial articular-sided supraspinatus tendon avulsion (PASTA) and superior labral fraying. The primary pathophysiology of his 'internal impingement' involves the abnormal contact between the articular side of the rotator cuff and which of the following structures?

Examination of a 4-year old child with obstetrical palsy reveals weak deltoids, pectoralis major strength of 4-5, and normal hand function. External rotation of the shoulder is limited. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure to restore external rotation?

A woman with a neck and chest tumor has weakness in the biceps and paresthesias in the thumb. Brachioradialis and infraspinatus function are normal. The lesion is affecting which of the following structures?

Figure 55 shows the radiograph of a 30-year-old man who sustained a closed comminuted fracture of the right clavicle. Examination reveals decreased sensation in the radial nerve distribution. Weakness is noted with shoulder abduction, internal rotation, and wrist extension. A displaced bone fragment is most likely pressing on what portion of the brachial plexus?

A 24-year-old patient undergoes arthroscopic stabilization for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Preoperative imaging reveals a large Hill-Sachs lesion that engages the anterior glenoid rim with the arm in abduction and external rotation. Glenoid bone loss is estimated at 10%. In addition to an arthroscopic Bankart repair, which of the following procedures is most appropriate to address the humeral head defect?

A 54-year-old male sustains a traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation. Post-reduction radiographs demonstrate a concentric reduction of the glenohumeral joint, but reveal an associated greater tuberosity fracture with 8 mm of superior displacement. What is the most appropriate management plan?

In evaluating a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, what degree of critical glenoid bone loss is generally considered the threshold to proceed with a Latarjet procedure rather than an arthroscopic Bankart repair?

A 40-year-old man presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation after a seizure. CT imaging reveals an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 35% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 22-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. A 3D CT scan reveals 10% anterior glenoid bone loss and a large, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion that is classified as 'off-track'. Which of the following procedures effectively converts this lesion to an 'on-track' lesion without requiring bony augmentation of the glenoid?

A 50-year-old male sustains a proximal-third humeral shaft fracture. The proximal fragment is abducted and externally rotated, while the distal fragment is displaced proximally and medially. Which muscle is primarily responsible for the medial displacement of the distal fragment?

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals a 30% anteroinferior glenoid bone defect. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 19-year-old collegiate rugby player with recurrent anterior shoulder instability undergoes imaging, which demonstrates a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 20-year-old football player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Advanced imaging demonstrates a 15% glenoid bone loss combined with a large, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate?