Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

A 30-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. An MRI reveals a paralabral ganglion cyst. At what precise anatomic location is this cyst most likely compressing the affected nerve?

A 22-year-old rugby player undergoes an open Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Postoperatively, he presents with weakness in elbow flexion and forearm supination, as well as numbness over the lateral forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player with recurrent anterior shoulder instability is found to have 25% anterior glenoid bone loss on a 3D CT scan. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 32-year-old patient reports progressively increasing pain and stiffness after undergoing arthroscopic shoulder stabilization 1 year ago. The stabilization procedure was a Bankart repair with anchor fixation and supplemented with the heat probe. Radiographs are shown in Figures 45a and 45b. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 22-year-old athlete sustains a traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation. During preoperative planning, an 'engaging' Hill-Sachs lesion is identified. Which of the following defines an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion?

A 72-year-old male presents with profound weakness in external rotation and abduction three weeks after successful closed reduction of an anterior shoulder dislocation. Electromyography reveals normal axillary nerve function. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 45-year-old male construction worker presents with persistent anterior shoulder pain. He had a prior SLAP repair 20 years ago. An MRI demonstrates a failed Type II SLAP repair and advanced biceps tendinopathy. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 22-year-old rugby player with recurrent anterior shoulder instability and 25% glenoid bone loss undergoes a Latarjet procedure. During the coracoid transfer, the musculocutaneous nerve must be identified and protected. What is its approximate distance from the tip of the coracoid process?

A 26-year-old elite volleyball attacker complains of chronic posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. Forward elevation and internal rotation are full and 5/5 in strength. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. At which anatomic location is the nerve compression most likely occurring?

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with anterior shoulder pain. Physical examination of his throwing shoulder reveals 25 degrees less internal rotation compared to his non-throwing shoulder, but his total arc of motion is symmetric. What is the primary underlying anatomic pathology associated with this condition?

A 30-year-old volleyball player presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst compressing the nerve at the spinoglenoid notch. Which muscle(s) will most likely demonstrate denervation changes on electromyography (EMG)?

A 28-year-old male volleyball player presents with insidious onset of right shoulder weakness. Examination reveals isolated weakness in external rotation with the arm at the side, but normal forward elevation and internal rotation. MRI shows a paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following labral pathologies is most commonly associated with this finding?

A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department after a first-time generalized seizure. Radiographs demonstrate a posterior shoulder dislocation with an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 25% of the articular surface. The shoulder is unstable in internal rotation after closed reduction. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 40-year-old man presents with severe shoulder pain and limited external rotation after a seizure. Radiographs demonstrate a locked posterior shoulder dislocation with an anteromedial humeral head impression fracture (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 30% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 38-year-old man presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation following a seizure. CT scan confirms an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 35% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT imaging demonstrates a 30% anterior glenoid bone defect. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 34-year-old male presents to the ER after a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. His shoulder is locked in internal rotation. A modified axillary radiograph reveals a posterior shoulder dislocation with an anteromedial humeral head defect involving 30% of the articular surface. Which procedure is most appropriate?

A 40-year-old male presents with an unprovoked seizure resulting in a right posterior shoulder dislocation. Imaging reveals an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 30% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical management to prevent recurrent instability?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. An MRI reveals a 25% bony Bankart lesion of the anterior glenoid.

Which of the following surgical interventions provides the most reliable long-term stability for this patient?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability after a primary traumatic dislocation. A 3D-CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?