Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

A 40-year-old man falls while skiing and sustains an isolated full-thickness tear of the subscapularis tendon. Which of the following physical examination findings has the highest sensitivity for identifying a lesion specifically involving the upper portion of the subscapularis tendon footprint?

A 22-year-old male athlete undergoes arthroscopic stabilization for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. The surgeon identifies a bony Bankart lesion involving 25% of the anterior glenoid width. What is the most appropriate management of this bony defect?

An elite baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Physical examination reveals a significant Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD). This condition is primarily driven by contracture of which of the following capsular structures?

The 'glenoid track' concept is crucial in the preoperative evaluation of anterior shoulder instability. A Hill-Sachs lesion is deemed 'off-track' (or engaging) if its medial margin lies where in relation to the glenoid track?

Internal impingement of the shoulder, commonly seen in overhead throwing athletes during the late cocking phase, involves pathologic contact between the:

A 22-year-old elite baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking and early acceleration phases of throwing. MRI arthrogram reveals a partial articular-sided supraspinatus tendon tear and superior labral fraying. The pathophysiology of this internal impingement is characterized by pathologic abutment between which of the following structures?

A 45-year-old heavy laborer presents with persistent anterior shoulder pain. MR arthrogram confirms an isolated Type II SLAP tear. Nonoperative management has failed. Which of the following surgical interventions is most likely to yield the best functional outcome and lowest revision rate in this specific patient profile?

A 24-year-old rugby player undergoes revision surgery for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Diagnostic arthroscopy reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and a deep Hill-Sachs lesion that engages the anterior glenoid rim in abduction and external rotation. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

In the setting of massive posterosuperior rotator cuff tears, which muscle uniquely demonstrates a high degree of rapid fat accumulation and atrophy due to suprascapular nerve retraction and compression via the 'sling effect' at the spinoglenoid notch?

A 22-year-old rugby player undergoes stabilization for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Arthroscopy reveals 15% anterior glenoid bone loss and a large, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. An arthroscopic Bankart repair is planned along with a 'remplissage' procedure. What structure is transferred or tenodesed into the humeral defect during a remplissage?

During a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with significant glenoid bone loss, the transferred coracoid block provides both a static bony block and a dynamic 'sling effect'. Which anatomical structure is primarily responsible for generating this dynamic sling effect?

In a patient with anterior shoulder instability, a bipolar bone loss lesion is identified. The 'glenoid track' concept is utilized to determine the risk of engagement. A Hill-Sachs lesion is considered 'engaging' (off-track) if its medial margin falls in which of the following locations relative to the glenoid track?

During a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the transferred coracoid process confers stability via a 'triple blocking' effect. Which of the following anatomical structures provides the critical dynamic 'sling' effect when the arm is placed in abduction and external rotation?

A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher complains of vague posterior shoulder pain. Physical examination demonstrates a Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees on his throwing arm compared to the contralateral side. What is the primary anatomical driver responsible for this physical exam finding?

A 65-year-old woman sustains a 3-part proximal humerus fracture involving the surgical neck and greater tuberosity. The greater tuberosity fragment is severely displaced superiorly and posteriorly. What muscle forces are primarily responsible for the displacement of this specific fragment?

A 19-year-old collision athlete is undergoing an open Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability associated with 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. During the approach, which muscle is typically split to allow passage of the coracoid bone block to the anterior glenoid neck?

During arthroscopy for a 22-year-old male with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon visualizes a capsulolabral complex that has displaced medially and scarred down along the anterior scapular neck. The anterior scapular periosteum remains intact but is stripped from the glenoid margin. Which of the following eponymous terms best describes this pathology?

A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT arthrogram reveals a glenoid bone loss of 12% and a large Hill-Sachs lesion. Applying the glenoid track concept, the Hill-Sachs lesion is calculated to be 'off-track.' Which of the following surgical strategies is most appropriate to restore stability?