Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

A 25-year-old elite overhead thrower presents with chronic posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination reveals a significant Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) and a positive posterior impingement test. Diagnostic arthroscopy is most likely to reveal which of the following?

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of deep shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI arthrogram shows a Type II SLAP tear. After failing 6 months of targeted physical therapy, what is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 45-year-old male sustains a traumatic right shoulder injury. He exhibits increased passive external rotation, a positive lift-off test, and a positive belly-press test. MRI confirms an isolated full-thickness tear of the subscapularis tendon. Which associated pathology must be carefully evaluated and addressed during surgical repair?

A 30-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. She is considering surgical stabilization. Which physical examination finding would most strongly suggest the presence of a Bankart lesion and indicate the need for surgery?

A 40-year-old male sustains an anterior glenohumeral dislocation. After successful closed reduction, what is the most important radiographic view to obtain to assess for associated injuries?

A 25-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He is diagnosed with internal impingement. Which of the following physical exam findings is most characteristically associated with this condition?

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He has a positive apprehension test but no relief with the relocation test. MRI reveals articular-sided, partial-thickness tears of the supraspinatus and a superior labrum anterior-posterior (SLAP) lesion. What is the underlying pathophysiology of this condition?

During an arthroscopic anterior stabilization (Bankart repair) for recurrent shoulder instability, a 'remplissage' procedure is added. This procedure involves tenodesis of which structure into a Hill-Sachs lesion?

A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss along with a large, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment to effectively restore stability and prevent future dislocations?

During physical examination for shoulder pain, a patient has a positive 'bear hug' test and a positive 'belly press' test, but a negative 'lift-off' test. This combination of clinical findings most strongly suggests a tear involving which portion of the subscapularis tendon?

During an arthroscopic stabilization for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon identifies an anterior labral tear that has displaced medially and healed directly to the anterior glenoid neck beneath an intact periosteum. What is the specific eponym for this lesion?

A 22-year-old rugby player undergoes evaluation for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Diagnostic arthroscopy reveals a large Hill-Sachs lesion that 'engages' the anterior glenoid rim when the arm is placed in abduction and external rotation. The glenoid bone loss is estimated at 10%. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate to address the Hill-Sachs lesion in conjunction with a Bankart repair?

In a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, a 'remplissage' procedure is indicated for a specific type of bony defect. This procedure involves the capsulotenodesis of which structure into the humeral defect?

A 28-year-old elite volleyball attacker presents with posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. Magnetic resonance imaging demonstrates a multiloculated paralabral cyst located strictly within the spinoglenoid notch. Which muscle will exhibit neurogenic atrophy on the MRI?

A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. An MRI reveals a Bankart lesion and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. The glenoid bone loss is calculated at 22%. Which surgical procedure is most indicated to prevent further dislocations in this patient?

A 19-year-old collegiate gymnast presents with bilateral shoulder pain. Examination reveals a 2+ sulcus sign in neutral rotation, 3+ anterior load-and-shift, and 3+ posterior load-and-shift bilaterally. She denies any specific traumatic event. What is the most appropriate initial management?

In evaluating a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, you assess the 'glenoid track' on advanced imaging. A Hill-Sachs lesion is deemed 'off-track'. Which of the following anatomic scenarios correctly defines an off-track Hill-Sachs lesion?

A 22-year-old professional rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan of the shoulder reveals an anterior glenoid bone loss of 28%. Which surgical procedure is most highly indicated for this patient to prevent further dislocations?

Superior capsular reconstruction (SCR) is a surgical option for massive, irreparable rotator cuff tears. The primary biomechanical goal of the graft in SCR is to: