Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

In the setting of recurrent anterior shoulder instability, what is the primary anatomical indication for performing a 'remplissage' procedure in conjunction with an arthroscopic Bankart repair?

A 45-year-old trauma patient sustains a highly comminuted scapular body and neck fracture. Which of the following radiographic parameters represents a widely accepted indication for operative fixation of the scapular neck?

A 40-year-old male presents with a missed posterior shoulder dislocation resulting in a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 30% of the humeral head articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 22-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability following multiple dislocations. Advanced imaging reveals 28% anterior glenoid bone loss.

Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 40-year-old male sustains a seizure resulting in a locked posterior glenohumeral dislocation. CT scan shows an anteromedial humeral head impression fracture (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 30% of the articular surface. The injury occurred 10 days ago. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 26-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and decreased velocity. MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP tear. What biomechanical mechanism is most directly responsible for this pathology during the throwing motion?

A 65-year-old laborer presents with an irrepairable, massive posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has full passive range of motion, severe weakness in external rotation, and an intact subscapularis. If the patient declines a reverse total shoulder arthroplasty, which tendon transfer is most appropriate?

A 32-year-old volleyball player presents with insidious onset of posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst located in the spinoglenoid notch. Which muscle will primarily exhibit atrophy as a result of this specific nerve compression?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with persistent anterior shoulder pain. MRI confirms an isolated Type II SLAP tear. Based on current evidence, what is the recommended surgical management to optimize return to work and minimize persistent pain?

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset of right shoulder weakness. On examination, he has full active abduction and forward elevation, but profound weakness in external rotation with the arm at the side. Muscle atrophy is isolated to the infraspinatus fossa. Where is the most likely site of neurologic compression?

A 22-year-old rugby player has a history of recurrent anterior glenohumeral dislocations. Advanced imaging demonstrates 26% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following procedures is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 58-year-old male sustains a high-energy fall, resulting in a Neer three-part fracture of the proximal humerus involving the surgical neck and greater tuberosity, with significant displacement of both fragments relative to the humeral head. He is otherwise healthy and has high functional demands. During surgical planning, the orthopedic surgeon is particularly concerned about the risk of avascular necrosis (AVN) of the humeral head. Which of the following anatomical structures is most critical for the primary blood supply to the humeral head and its disruption significantly increases the risk of AVN?

A 42-year-old male presents with a displaced greater tuberosity fracture of the proximal humerus after a snowboarding accident. Radiographs show the greater tuberosity fragment displaced superiorly by 8 mm. He is an active individual with high functional demands. During surgical planning for open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF), the surgeon considers the deforming forces acting on the fracture fragments. Which muscle is primarily responsible for the superior displacement of the greater tuberosity fragment?

When repairing a proximal humerus fracture via a standard deltopectoral approach, which structure serves as the primary anatomic landmark to identify the interval between the greater and lesser tuberosities?

A 28-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with recurrent anterior glenohumeral instability despite extensive rehabilitation and a prior arthroscopic Bankart repair. Imaging reveals significant anterior glenoid bone loss (28%) and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following procedures, performed via the deltopectoral approach, is most indicated for this patient?

A 55-year-old male undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a 3-part proximal humerus fracture via the deltopectoral approach. Post-operatively, he exhibits excellent deltoid function with minimal weakness. This outcome primarily highlights which biomechanical advantage of the deltopectoral approach?

A 60-year-old patient is undergoing a primary total shoulder arthroplasty for glenohumeral osteoarthritis via the deltopectoral approach. After identifying and protecting the axillary nerve, the surgeon proceeds with managing the subscapularis tendon. What is the most common and standard method of subscapularis management for this procedure, as described in the case?

A surgeon is performing a deltopectoral approach and has exposed the subscapularis muscle. Which of the following nerves is responsible for innervating the subscapularis muscle?