This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Shoulder & Hip Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 241
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 19-year-old female gymnast complains of bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of her shoulders "slipping." Examination demonstrates a positive sulcus sign and a positive apprehension test bilaterally, without a discrete history of trauma. Initial management should primarily consist of:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Scapular stabilization and rotator cuff strengthening
Explanation
The patient has multidirectional instability (MDI), characterized by generalized ligamentous laxity and atraumatic instability. The mainstay of initial treatment is a prolonged course of physical therapy focusing on periscapular and rotator cuff strengthening.
Question 242
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old rugby player undergoes arthroscopic Bankart repair for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Intraoperatively, an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion is identified with a glenoid bone loss of 10%. Which of the following adjunct procedures is most appropriate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic remplissage
Explanation
An engaging Hill-Sachs lesion with subcritical glenoid bone loss (<20-25%) is an indication for an arthroscopic remplissage combined with an anterior Bankart repair. This involves infraspinatus tenodesis and posterior capsulodesis into the humeral defect.
Question 243
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
An obese 12-year-old boy presents with right groin pain and an obligate external rotation of the hip during passive flexion. He is diagnosed with a stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). Which complication is most closely associated with the natural history of the altered anatomy if left untreated?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Femoroacetabular impingement
Explanation
The metaphyseal prominence resulting from the slipped epiphysis creates a cam lesion, leading to anterior femoroacetabular impingement. While AVN and chondrolysis are common complications of severe slips or treatment, FAI is the most common sequela of the altered bony morphology.
Question 244
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 19-year-old female swimmer presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of her shoulders slipping out of place. Examination reveals a positive sulcus sign bilaterally, apprehension and relocation tests, and generalized ligamentous laxity. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Physical therapy emphasizing periscapular and rotator cuff strengthening
Explanation
Multidirectional instability (MDI) is typically atraumatic and characterized by generalized ligamentous laxity. The cornerstone of initial management is an extended, structured course of physical therapy focusing on the dynamic stabilizers and periscapular musculature.
Question 245
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
The detailed neurological examination of the newborn in the case revealed absent spontaneous movement for shoulder abduction/external rotation and elbow flexion, but present elbow extension and full spontaneous movement of fingers and thumb. Sensory examination showed intact withdrawal reflex in the hand but absent withdrawal in the lateral upper arm. This pattern of motor and sensory deficit is most indicative of involvement of which specific nerve roots?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. C5-C6
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThis question directly assesses knowledge of dermatomal and myotomal innervation. The key deficits described are:Absent shoulder abduction/external rotation:Primarily C5-C6 (deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor).Absent elbow flexion:Primarily C5-C6 (biceps, brachialis).Present elbow extension:Primarily C7-C8 (triceps), suggesting sparing of these roots.Full spontaneous movement of fingers and thumb:Primarily C8-T1, suggesting sparing of these roots.Absent withdrawal to noxious stimuli in the lateral upper arm:This corresponds to the C5-C6 dermatome.Intact withdrawal reflex in the hand:This corresponds to the C8-T1 dermatome.Combining these findings, the pattern of weakness and sensory loss is precisely localized to the C5 and C6 nerve roots, characteristic of an Erb-Duchenne palsy.
Question 246
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 40-year-old male develops sudden, severe right shoulder pain that wakes him at night. Two weeks later, the pain subsides, but he notices profound weakness in shoulder abduction and external rotation. MRI of the shoulder is unremarkable. EMG shows active denervation in the supraspinatus and infraspinatus without radicular findings. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Brachial neuritis (Parsonage-Turner syndrome)
Explanation
Parsonage-Turner syndrome typically presents with an acute onset of severe shoulder pain followed by patchy weakness and amyotrophy as the pain resolves. EMG confirms acute denervation without structural compression, differentiating it from a compressive neuropathy or radiculopathy.
Question 247
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 26-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness. Examination shows atrophy isolated to the infraspinatus fossa, with normal supraspinatus bulk and strength. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is the most likely location of the nerve compression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch by a paralabral cyst results in isolated infraspinatus atrophy and weakness in external rotation.
Question 248
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle with normal bulk and strength of the supraspinatus. Where is the most likely location of the nerve compression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch
Explanation
Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the motor branch to the infraspinatus, leading to isolated infraspinatus weakness and atrophy. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.
Question 249
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 20-year-old male sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation during a rugby match. A subsequent MRI arthrogram reveals an avulsion of the anterior-inferior glenoid labrum with the attached inferior glenohumeral ligament complex. What is the specific eponym for this lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bankart lesion
Explanation
A Bankart lesion is a detachment of the anterior-inferior labrum and inferior glenohumeral ligament from the glenoid rim. It is the essential, most common pathologic lesion causing recurrent anterior shoulder instability.
Question 250
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
Following the initial AP shoulder X-ray showing proximal humeral migration and subacromial narrowing, the candidate requests an axillary view. What specific finding is the candidate MOST likely looking for on the axillary view in this clinical context?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior or posterior subluxation of the humeral head.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CIn the context of suspected rotator cuff tear arthropathy (RCAT) with proximal migration seen on the AP view, an axillary view is crucial to assess for anteroposterior stability and subluxation of the humeral head relative to the glenoid. Specifically, anterior subluxation of the humeral head is a common finding in RCAT, often associated with a deficient subscapularis tendon, as noted by the second candidate in the case. Glenohumeral joint space narrowing (Option A) is better assessed on the AP view for superior migration, and while it can be seen, subluxation is more specific to cuff deficiency. AC joint osteophytes (Option B) are relevant for AC joint pathology, not directly for RCAT diagnosis. A Hill-Sachs lesion (Option D) is associated with anterior shoulder instability (dislocation), not typically RCAT. Scapular notching (Option E) is a complication seen after reverse shoulder arthroplasty, not a diagnostic feature on pre-operative plain radiographs for RCAT.
Question 251
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
The 76-year-old gentleman is diagnosed with rotator cuff tear arthropathy. Which of the following is the primary pathophysiological mechanism leading to the characteristic radiographic findings and symptoms in RCAT?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Loss of superior humeral head containment due to massive rotator cuff tear, leading to deltoid-driven superior migration.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe primary pathophysiology of RCAT is the loss of the superior stabilizing force of the rotator cuff due to a massive, irreparable tear. This allows the deltoid muscle to pull the humeral head superiorly, leading to proximal migration. This superior migration causes abnormal articulation between the humeral head and the acromion/coracoacromial arch, resulting in erosion of the articular cartilage of both the humeral head and the glenoid, and eventually arthritic changes. Chronic inflammation (Option A) and primary osteoarthritis (Option B) are not the initiating factors for RCAT. Biceps tendinopathy (Option D) can be associated but is not the primary mechanism of arthropathy. While impingement (Option E) can be a precursor to rotator cuff tears, RCAT represents a more advanced stage where the cuff is massively torn, and the primary issue is the loss of humeral head depression and centering.
Question 252
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
The candidate correctly explains that reverse shoulder arthroplasty (RSA) brings the center of rotation of the glenohumeral joint medially and increases the moment arm of the deltoid. How does this biomechanical change primarily contribute to improved shoulder function in patients with rotator cuff tear arthropathy?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It allows the deltoid muscle to effectively abduct the arm in the absence of a functional rotator cuff.
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe key biomechanical advantage of reverse shoulder arthroplasty (RSA) in rotator cuff tear arthropathy (RCAT) is its ability to restore active elevation (abduction and forward flexion) in the absence of a functional rotator cuff. By medializing and distalizing the center of rotation, the RSA effectively lengthens the deltoid muscle and increases its moment arm. This allows the deltoid to become the primary abductor and elevator of the arm, compensating for the deficient rotator cuff. It does not directly repair the cuff (Option A). While it can reduce glenoid erosion by providing a stable articulation, this is a secondary effect, not the primary mechanism for improved function (Option B). It typically improves abduction and flexion but may compromise rotation (Option D). Pain relief is a major goal, but it's achieved through restoring stability and function, not denervation (Option E).
Question 253
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Computed tomography shows a 28% anterior glenoid bone loss. An open Latarjet procedure is planned. Which structure passes through the "split" of the subscapularis during this procedure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Conjoined tendon
Explanation
During a Latarjet procedure, the coracoid process with the attached conjoined tendon (short head of biceps and coracobrachialis) is transferred to the anterior glenoid neck. It is passed through a split in the subscapularis muscle, creating a dynamic sling.
Question 254
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A patient has just undergone a successful open reduction and ligament reconstruction for a chronic posterior sternoclavicular joint dislocation. The surgeon is discussing the immediate post-operative rehabilitation protocol with the physical therapist.
During the initial 0-6 week post-operative phase, which of the following is a critical precaution or restriction that MUST be strictly adhered to?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Strict avoidance of abduction and external rotation of the ipsilateral arm
Explanation
Correct Answer: CDuring the initial 0-6 week post-operative phase following sternoclavicular (SC) joint reconstruction, the primary goal is protection of the surgical repair to allow tissue healing. For posterior repairs,strict avoidance of abduction and external rotation of the ipsilateral armis a critical precaution. The arm is typically immobilized in a sling or figure-of-8 bandage. Full active range of motion, including overhead activities (A), and immediate return to resistance exercises (B) are contraindicated as they would stress the healing repair. Unrestricted weight-bearing (D) is also not allowed. Discontinuation of pain medication (E) is medically inappropriate and unrelated to rehabilitation precautions.
Question 255
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. MRI arthrogram reveals an avulsion of the anterior labrum along with the anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) from the glenoid rim. This lesion is formally known as:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bankart lesion
Explanation
A Bankart lesion is the classic detachment of the anteroinferior labrum and the attached inferior glenohumeral ligament from the glenoid rim. It is the essential lesion in most traumatic anterior shoulder dislocations.
Question 256
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During arthroscopic stabilization for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon notes an intact anterior labrum but an avulsion of the inferior glenohumeral ligament from its humeral insertion. What is the appropriate terminology for this lesion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. HAGL lesion
Explanation
HAGL stands for Humeral Avulsion of the Glenohumeral Ligament. It is a cause of anterior instability where the IGHL tears off the humerus rather than the glenoid, often requiring open or arthroscopic repair.
Question 257
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 50-year-old patient presents with acute shoulder pain after a seizure. On examination, the arm is held in internal rotation, and the anterior shoulder appears flattened. External rotation is severely restricted. Which radiographic finding on an AP shoulder view is pathognomonic for a posterior shoulder dislocation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Trough line sign
Explanation
Correct Answer: CThe Trough line sign (or reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) is an impaction fracture on the anterior-medial aspect of the humeral head, often seen with posterior dislocations. The other options are incorrect: Hill-Sachs and Bankart lesions are typically associated with anterior dislocations. HAGL lesions are avulsions of the glenohumeral ligaments, often associated with anterior dislocations. Os acromiale is an anatomical variant.
Question 258
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 70-year-old male sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. After reduction, plain radiographs show a concomitant fracture. Which fracture is MOST commonly associated with anterior shoulder dislocation in this age group?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Greater tuberosity fracture
Explanation
Correct Answer: BWhile Hill-Sachs and Bankart lesions are very common with anterior dislocations, in older patients, a greater tuberosity fracture is particularly common (up to 30% in some series) due to the weaker bone and the forces involved in the injury. The rotator cuff avulses a piece of the tuberosity during the dislocation. Surgical neck fracture is also possible but less frequent than greater tuberosity in direct association with dislocation. Clavicle fractures are less directly associated with glenohumeral dislocation mechanism.
Question 259
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 40-year-old male sustains a posterior shoulder dislocation during a seizure. After successful closed reduction, a CT scan reveals a reverse Hill-Sachs defect involving 25% of the humeral head articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management to prevent recurrent instability?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect
Explanation
For reverse Hill-Sachs defects between 20% and 40% of the articular surface, a modified McLaughlin procedure (transfer of the lesser tuberosity and subscapularis into the defect) is indicated to prevent the defect from engaging the posterior glenoid rim.
Question 260
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 60-year-old male presents with persistent shoulder weakness 4 weeks after an anterior shoulder dislocation that was successfully reduced. He has full passive range of motion but positive bear-hug and belly-press tests. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subscapularis tendon tear
Explanation
Older patients (>40 years) are at a high risk for rotator cuff tears following anterior shoulder dislocations. A positive bear-hug and belly-press test indicates a subscapularis tendon tear.
Test Yourself
Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.