Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

During a deltopectoral approach, after incising the clavipectoral fascia and retracting the conjoined tendon medially, the surgeon is preparing to expose the subscapularis. The axillary neurovascular bundle is a critical structure to protect. Where is this bundle primarily located relative to the coracoid process and pectoralis minor muscle?

A posterior approach to the shoulder (modified Judet) is selected for open reduction and internal fixation of a displaced posterior glenoid fracture. What is the true internervous plane utilized to safely expose the posterior joint capsule?

A 45-year-old male undergoes open reduction and internal fixation of a posterior glenoid rim fracture. A posterior approach to the shoulder is utilized. Which of the following defines the true internervous plane for this approach?

When performing a posterior approach to the shoulder for open reduction of a posterior glenoid fracture, the surgeon develops an internervous plane between which two muscles to access the posterior joint capsule?

A 22-year-old collegiate football player sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. Advanced imaging reveals an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion and 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following surgical procedures is MOST appropriate to restore stability?

A 40-year-old male sustains a posterior shoulder dislocation following a seizure. CT scan reveals an anteromedial humeral head impaction fracture (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) that involves 45% of the articular surface. Which of the following surgical interventions is MOST appropriate for this patient?

A 21-year-old motorcyclist sustains a traumatic scapulothoracic dissociation. Physical examination reveals massive shoulder swelling and an insensate, flail upper extremity. Which of the following injuries has the highest association with this clinical entity and largely dictates the ultimate functional prognosis?

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious posterior shoulder pain and weakness. Physical exam reveals isolated weakness in external rotation with the arm at the side. The infraspinatus demonstrates profound atrophy, but the supraspinatus muscle bulk and strength are completely normal. Where is the most likely site of nerve compression?

The Remplissage procedure is utilized to manage significant engaging Hill-Sachs lesions following anterior shoulder dislocations. It involves capsulodesis and tenodesis of which muscle into the humeral head defect?

A 55-year-old male undergoes arthroscopic evaluation of a massive rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. Preoperatively, he exhibited a positive 'horn blower's' sign. Which muscle is primarily deficient?

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with a history of recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan evaluation of the glenoid demonstrates a 25% anterior glenoid bone defect. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

A 20-year-old collegiate rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A pre-operative 3D CT scan demonstrates 27% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive management?

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI arthrography reveals a Type II SLAP lesion. The pathogenesis of this specific injury is most commonly associated with:

During the physical examination portion of your oral answer, the examiner asks how you would assess for a subscapularis tear. Which test is considered the most specific for isolated subscapularis pathology?

An examiner asks you about imaging for a suspected rotator cuff tear. For initial evaluation, which imaging modality is generally preferred due to its balance of cost-effectiveness, accessibility, and diagnostic accuracy?

An examiner probes your understanding of rotator cuff repair indications. Which factor is generally considered a strong indication for surgical repair of an acute, traumatic full-thickness rotator cuff tear in an otherwise healthy, active patient?

When discussing the expected outcome following an arthroscopic Bankart repair for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, what complication is crucial to mention to the examiner as a potential risk, particularly regarding range of motion?

You are asked to describe the rehabilitation principles following an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair. What is the primary goal during the initial phase (0-6 weeks post-op)?

A 22-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability following an initial dislocation during a rugby match. Advanced imaging reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

A 55-year-old male laborer presents with chronic right shoulder pain and weakness. Examination reveals a positive Hornblower's sign and severe weakness in external rotation. MRI demonstrates an isolated, massive, and irreparable tear of the posterosuperior rotator cuff with advanced fatty infiltration. Which of the following tendon transfers is most appropriate to restore external rotation?