Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

In a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, which of the following anatomic scenarios is the primary indication for adding an arthroscopic remplissage to an anterior Bankart repair?

During diagnostic arthroscopy for recurrent anterior shoulder instability in a 22-year-old male, the surgeon identifies an 'engaging' Hill-Sachs lesion. The surgeon opts for an arthroscopic Bankart repair combined with a 'remplissage' procedure. The remplissage technique involves the tenodesis of which structure into the humeral head defect?

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Examination reveals a Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees compared to the contralateral side. Pathophysiologically, this condition is most directly associated with contracture of which of the following structures?

When evaluating a patient for anterior shoulder instability, the "glenoid track" concept is utilized to determine the need for a bone-blocking procedure. The glenoid track is defined as what percentage of the intact glenoid width?

In a newborn with Erb's palsy (C5-C6 root injury), the arm is classically held in internal rotation, shoulder adduction, elbow extension, and forearm pronation (waiter's tip posture). Which muscle's paralysis primarily contributes to the inability to externally rotate the shoulder?

A 28-year-old male hockey player presents with anterior groin pain exacerbated by deep hip flexion and internal rotation. AP pelvis radiographs reveal a prominent 'crossover sign' and a positive 'ischial spine sign'. Which of the following underlying conditions is most consistent with these exact radiographic findings?

A surgeon is performing a surgical dislocation of the hip using the Ganz approach to treat femoroacetabular impingement. To protect the deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA), which of the following structures must be meticulously preserved and left attached to the femur?

A 24-year-old collegiate hockey player presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate an alpha angle of 65 degrees on the modified Dunn lateral view, with no joint space narrowing. This pathology is primarily caused by an osseous deformity located at which specific region of the proximal femur?

In the evaluation of femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), atypical extra-articular impingement must be considered. Subspine impingement specifically involves pathological abutment between the anterior distal femoral neck and which of the following structures?

In the setting of recurrent anterior shoulder instability, an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion is defined as an osseous defect that:

A 21-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan reveals 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following procedures is the most appropriate definitive management to prevent recurrent instability?

In evaluating a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, what is the defining characteristic of an "off-track" Hill-Sachs lesion?

During a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the coracoid process is transferred to the anterior glenoid neck. The 'sling effect' is considered the most significant contributor to stability in this procedure. Which of the following describes the mechanism of this dynamic sling?

A 45-year-old bodybuilder feels a pop in his shoulder during a heavy bench press. Examination reveals increased passive external rotation and a positive belly-press test. An MRI confirms an isolated, full-thickness tear of the upper subscapularis tendon. What additional pathology is most strongly associated with this specific injury?

A 25-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT imaging demonstrates a Hill-Sachs lesion and a glenoid bone loss of 12%. Applying the 'glenoid track' concept, the Hill-Sachs lesion is calculated to be 'off-track.' Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management to prevent recurrent instability?

A 35-year-old male professional volleyball player presents with progressive weakness in his dominant shoulder. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa and severe weakness in external rotation. Supraspinatus strength and muscle bulk are normal. An MRI is most likely to demonstrate a paralabral cyst compressing the suprascapular nerve at which of the following anatomical locations?

A 20-year-old competitive rugby player presents with his fourth anterior shoulder dislocation. A 3D CT scan reveals 23% anterior glenoid bone loss. According to the Instability Severity Index Score (ISIS) and current literature, what is the most appropriate definitive surgical management?

A 28-year-old male undergoes hip arthroscopy for Femoroacetabular Impingement (FAI) with a symptomatic Cam lesion and labral tear. To minimize the risk of a postoperative iatrogenic femoral neck fracture, the femoral osteochondroplasty should not exceed what percentage of the femoral neck diameter?

A 58-year-old laborer presents with an MRI-confirmed massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has preserved active forward elevation but severe pain. The teres minor and subscapularis are intact, and there is no glenohumeral arthritis (Hamada Grade 1). Which is the most appropriate surgical option?