Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

A 22-year-old female ballet dancer complains of a palpable, audible, and sometimes painful snapping over the lateral aspect of her hip when returning her hip to a neutral position from a flexed and abducted state. What is the underlying pathoanatomy of this specific 'external snapping hip' syndrome?

A 22-year-old hockey player presents with anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs reveal an alpha angle of 65 degrees and decreased head-neck offset. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of cartilage damage in this specific condition?

A 19-year-old female competitive swimmer presents with bilateral shoulder pain and a sensation of instability. Examination demonstrates a positive sulcus sign and apprehension in multiple planes. She has failed a 6-month trial of directed periscapular stabilization physical therapy. If surgical intervention is elected, what is the gold standard procedure?

A 20-year-old ballet dancer reports a painful 'snapping' sensation deep in her anterior groin when she extends her hip from a flexed, abducted, and externally rotated position. Dynamic ultrasound confirms the diagnosis of internal snapping hip syndrome. Over what specific bony structure is the involved tendon most commonly subluxating?

A 24-year-old volleyball attacker presents with posterior shoulder pain during the cocking phase of her serve. An MR arthrogram reveals a 'peel-back' SLAP tear and partial-thickness, articular-sided tearing of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus footprint. This constellation of findings is pathognomonic for:

During an arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, the surgeon identifies a tear of the subscapularis tendon. Which of the following physical examination tests is most specific for evaluating a tear involving the upper border of the subscapularis tendon?

A 24-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan demonstrates a 15% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. The surgeon plans an arthroscopic Bankart repair with a Remplissage procedure. Which of the following structures is tenodesed into the Hill-Sachs defect during a Remplissage?

A 25-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with 'dead arm' syndrome and posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II Superior Labrum Anterior Posterior (SLAP) tear. During this specific phase of the throwing motion, what is the primary biomechanical force driving the 'peel-back' mechanism of the labrum?

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Arthroscopic evaluation reveals fraying of the posterosuperior labrum and a partial articular-sided tear of the supraspinatus. What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism for this specific constellation of findings?

A 35-year-old male with a history of poorly controlled seizures presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation. CT imaging reveals an anteromedial humeral head impaction fracture (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 30% of the articular surface. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 20-year-old male sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation during a tackle. Following reduction, an MRI arthrogram reveals an avulsion of the anterior inferior labrum along with the anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) directly off the glenoid rim. This specific lesion is termed a:

During the preoperative planning for a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the 'glenoid track' concept is utilized. An 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion without critical glenoid bone loss is best managed by which of the following soft-tissue procedures in addition to an arthroscopic Bankart repair?

A 55-year-old female presents with an anterior shoulder dislocation and an associated greater tuberosity fracture. Following closed reduction, radiographs demonstrate the greater tuberosity is displaced superiorly by 8 mm. What is the most appropriate management?

A 28-year-old volleyball player is diagnosed with a paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch compressing the passing nerve. What is the expected clinical physical examination finding?

A posterior approach to the shoulder exposes the quadrilateral space, which contains the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery. What are the correct anatomical borders of the quadrilateral space?

The suprascapular nerve provides motor innervation to the infraspinatus muscle. At the spinoglenoid notch, the nerve is at risk of compression from a paralabral cyst. Which ligament forms the roof of the spinoglenoid notch?

The rotator interval is a distinct anatomical and capsular space in the shoulder. What structures form its superior and inferior borders, respectively?

When performing a Latarjet procedure, the conjoined tendon is retracted medially. To prevent injury to the musculocutaneous nerve, the surgeon must remember that it typically enters the coracobrachialis at what approximate distance distal to the coracoid process?