Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

A 22-year-old male athlete presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. An MRI reveals an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion and anterior glenoid bone loss of 25%. What is the most appropriate surgical management for this patient to prevent recurrence?

A 45-year-old sustains a traumatic anterior shoulder dislocation. Post-reduction imaging shows an anterior glenoid bone loss of 30% and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate definitive surgical management to prevent recurrent instability?

A 24-year-old athlete sustains a traction injury to the neck and shoulder. Clinical examination reveals profound weakness in shoulder abduction initiation and external rotation, with isolated atrophy of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. Sensation over the lateral deltoid is intact. From which specific component of the brachial plexus does the affected nerve originate?

A 25-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness. Physical examination reveals isolated weakness in external rotation with the arm at the side, but normal forward elevation and internal rotation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is the cyst most likely located to produce this specific deficit?

In rotator cuff tear arthropathy, the massive, irreparable tearing of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons leads to superior migration of the humeral head. This phenomenon is biomechanically attributed to the disruption of which of the following forces?

A 22-year-old collegiate rugby player sustains a recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation. A 3D CT scan reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate to minimize recurrence?

A 45-year-old male weightlifter presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. An MRI demonstrates an isolated paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which muscle is most likely to show denervation changes on EMG?

A 22-year-old male rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. CT imaging with 3D reconstruction reveals a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical management to prevent further recurrences in this high-demand contact athlete?

A 13-year-old male baseball pitcher complains of progressive right shoulder pain during the deceleration phase of throwing. Radiographs demonstrate widening and lateral fragmentation of the proximal humeral physis. What is the most appropriate initial management?

A 62-year-old male presents with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear with preserved subscapularis function. He has significant external rotation weakness and a positive hornblower's sign. He is not a candidate for reverse total shoulder arthroplasty due to medical comorbidities, but is medically optimized for soft tissue surgery. Which tendon transfer is most appropriate to restore external rotation?

A 26-year-old elite volleyball player presents with insidious onset, painless weakness of her hitting arm. Examination reveals isolated atrophy and weakness of the infraspinatus with normal supraspinatus strength. An MRI is most likely to show a cyst compressing the nerve at which location?

A 48-year-old heavy laborer presents with anterior shoulder pain and clicking. MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP tear. Conservative management has failed. To optimize his return to heavy labor and minimize postoperative stiffness, what is the best surgical procedure?

A 40-year-old male experiences a seizure and subsequently complains of shoulder pain with a locked internally rotated arm. Radiographs reveal a "lightbulb" sign on the AP view. What is the most likely associated osseous defect?

A 22-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. CT imaging demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. A Latarjet procedure is planned. Which of the following provides the primary mechanism of stabilization in the Latarjet procedure at 90 degrees of abduction and external rotation?

A 62-year-old male presents with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has profound weakness in external rotation and a positive external rotation lag sign. His subscapularis is fully intact, and he has active forward elevation to 130 degrees. Which of the following tendon transfers is most classically indicated for this specific pattern of deficit?

A 25-year-old ice hockey player is diagnosed with Femoroacetabular Impingement (FAI). Radiographs and MRI demonstrate a prominent Cam lesion with an alpha angle of 68 degrees. In this patient, where is the acetabular cartilage delamination most likely to be located?

A 45-year-old construction worker presents with chronic anterior shoulder pain and popping. MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP tear. Non-operative management has failed. Based on current evidence, which surgical intervention provides the most reliable return to work and clinical outcomes for this specific patient profile?

A 20-year-old baseball pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He exhibits a profound Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD). MRI arthrogram shows undersurface fraying of the supraspinatus and a posterosuperior labral tear. Which of the following is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism driving this condition (Internal Impingement)?

A 22-year-old collegiate football player undergoes evaluation for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. 3D CT reconstructions reveal 15% glenoid bone loss. An MRI confirms an anterior labral tear and a Hill-Sachs lesion. Applying the 'glenoid track' concept, the Hill-Sachs lesion is calculated to be 'off-track'. Which of the following surgical procedures is most indicated to minimize recurrence while minimizing bone-block morbidity?

A 25-year-old ice hockey player presents with chronic anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs display a pistol-grip deformity of the proximal femur, and MRI reveals an alpha angle of 65 degrees. Where is the bony pathomorphology primarily located in this condition?