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Question 2481

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 29-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague, deep, posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals an isolated paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch. Which physical examination finding is most expected?

. Atrophy of both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus
. Positive lift-off test
. Weakness in shoulder abduction with a positive empty can test
. Decreased sensation over the lateral deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Atrophy of both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus


Explanation

Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the motor branch to the infraspinatus, leading to isolated infraspinatus atrophy and external rotation weakness. Entrapment further proximal at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 2482

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During an arthroscopic anterior shoulder stabilization for recurrent instability, the surgeon notes an anterior labroligamentous periosteal sleeve avulsion (ALPSA) lesion. How does this lesion uniquely differ from a classic Bankart lesion?

. The labrum is detached with an intact periosteal sleeve that strips medially
. There is an associated bony fracture of the anterior glenoid rim
. The labrum is completely avulsed and incarcerated within the joint
. It involves the superior labrum anterior and posterior to the biceps anchor
. The anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament is avulsed from the humerus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The labrum is detached with an intact periosteal sleeve that strips medially


Explanation

An ALPSA lesion is characterized by the labrum and IGHL complex being stripped away from the glenoid but remaining attached to an intact medial periosteal sleeve. This tissue often heals in a medially displaced position, contrasting with a classic Bankart where the periosteum is torn.

Question 2483

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 42-year-old recreational tennis player has persistent shoulder pain despite 6 months of conservative management. MRI reveals an isolated Type II Superior Labrum Anterior Posterior (SLAP) tear. What is the most appropriate surgical management for this patient?

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair with suture anchors
. Arthroscopic debridement of the labrum only
. Open capsular shift
. Biceps tenodesis
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic SLAP repair with suture anchors


Explanation

In patients over 35-40 years old, biceps tenodesis provides more reliable pain relief and higher satisfaction rates compared to SLAP repair. SLAP repair in this age group has a higher rate of postoperative stiffness and clinical failure.

Question 2484

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 29-year-old elite volleyball player presents with insidious onset of right shoulder weakness. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with weakness in external rotation, but normal strength in forward elevation and abduction. Where is the most likely location of nerve compression?

. Suprascapular notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Spiral groove
. Cubital tunnel

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the distal branch to the infraspinatus, causing isolated external rotation weakness and atrophy without affecting the supraspinatus.

Question 2485

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 68-year-old man presents with a massive, retracted, and irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has significant weakness in external rotation, a positive hornblower's sign, but intact forward elevation and a functional subscapularis. Which tendon transfer is most appropriate?

. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Pectoralis major transfer
. Lower trapezius transfer
. Serratus anterior transfer
. Teres major transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latissimus dorsi transfer


Explanation

The lower trapezius transfer restores external rotation and has a line of pull that closely mimics the infraspinatus. It is highly effective for patients with irreparable posterosuperior tears, an intact subscapularis, and isolated external rotation deficits.

Question 2486

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 34-year-old man suffers an anterior shoulder dislocation with an associated Hill-Sachs lesion. On preoperative MRI, the glenoid track is calculated. The lesion is determined to be "off-track." What are the biomechanical implications of this finding?

. The lesion will confidently engage the anterior glenoid rim, indicating a need for a Latarjet or remplissage.
. The lesion will not engage the glenoid rim, and an isolated Bankart repair is sufficient.
. The patient has a concomitant SLAP tear requiring repair.
. The coracoid is hypoplastic and contraindicated for transfer.
. The patient is at extremely low risk for recurrent instability.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The lesion will confidently engage the anterior glenoid rim, indicating a need for a Latarjet or remplissage.


Explanation

An "off-track" Hill-Sachs lesion extends medial to the glenoid track, meaning it will engage the anterior glenoid rim in abduction and external rotation. This requires addressing the bipolar bone loss via a Latarjet procedure or remplissage.

Question 2487

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 29-year-old volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness with external rotation. MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following clinical findings is most likely present?

. Isolated atrophy of the supraspinatus
. Isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus
. Atrophy of both supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Weakness in initiating shoulder abduction
. Sensory loss over the lateral deltoid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated atrophy of the supraspinatus


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch by a cyst results in isolated infraspinatus atrophy and weakness in external rotation.

Question 2488

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

An active 55-year-old male undergoes arthroscopic rotator cuff repair with a concomitant subpectoral biceps tenodesis. Compared to a biceps tenotomy, what is the primary biomechanical and clinical advantage of tenodesis?

. Decreased postoperative pain
. Lower rate of superficial infection
. Maintenance of forearm supination strength and avoidance of a cosmetic deformity
. Faster healing of the rotator cuff repair
. Restoration of glenohumeral stability

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased postoperative pain


Explanation

Biceps tenodesis maintains the length-tension relationship of the biceps muscle, which preserves forearm supination strength and prevents the cosmetic Popeye deformity often seen after tenotomy. Both procedures offer similar pain relief.

Question 2489

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old professional hockey player presents with chronic anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. AP pelvis radiographs reveal a prominent 'crossover sign'. Which of the following pathomorphologies is primarily associated with this radiographic finding?

. Decreased femoral head-neck offset
. Acetabular retroversion
. Coxa profunda
. Acetabular protrusion
. Femoral retroversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased femoral head-neck offset


Explanation

The 'crossover sign' is seen on an AP pelvis radiograph when the anterior rim of the acetabulum projects laterally to the posterior rim in the superior portion of the joint. This indicates focal or global acetabular retroversion, which is a classic cause of pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). Decreased head-neck offset represents a cam-type deformity, while coxa profunda and protrusio are depth-related abnormalities.

Question 2490

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

When assessing an AP pelvis radiograph for suspected femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), the presence of a 'crossover sign' is indicative of which specific anatomic abnormality?

. Decreased femoral head-neck offset (Cam deformity)
. Focal anterior acetabular overcoverage (Acetabular retroversion)
. Global acetabular overcoverage (Coxa profunda)
. Ischiofemoral impingement
. Subspine impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased femoral head-neck offset (Cam deformity)


Explanation

The crossover sign occurs on an AP pelvis radiograph when the anterior rim of the acetabulum crosses the line of the posterior rim before reaching the lateral edge of the acetabulum. This indicates acetabular retroversion or focal anterior overcoverage, which is a classic cause of Pincer-type FAI.

Question 2491

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 13-year-old obese boy presents with left hip pain and an obligatory external rotation of the hip with passive flexion. Radiographs confirm a stable slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE). He undergoes in situ single-screw fixation. What is the most common long-term complication directly related to the residual deformity of this condition?

. Avascular necrosis
. Chondrolysis
. Femoroacetabular impingement (FAI)
. Deep joint infection
. Loss of fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Avascular necrosis


Explanation

In situ pinning is the gold standard for a stable SCFE but does not correct the underlying abnormal anatomy (posterior and inferior slippage of the epiphysis relative to the metaphysis). This creates a prominent anterior metaphyseal bump that predictably leads to Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) and early onset osteoarthritis.

Question 2492

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 25-year-old male athlete presents with groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate an alpha angle of 68 degrees on the Dunn lateral view. Which of the following accurately describes the primary pathomechanical consequence of this specific structural abnormality?

. Primary failure of the ligamentum teres with secondary instability
. Pincer-type impingement leading to posterior labral tears
. Delamination of the acetabular cartilage primarily at the anterosuperior quadrant
. Global retroversion of the acetabulum causing focal anterior overcoverage
. Ischiofemoral impingement during terminal hip extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Primary failure of the ligamentum teres with secondary instability


Explanation

An alpha angle greater than 50-55 degrees indicates a Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI), characterized by a non-spherical femoral head-neck junction. During flexion and internal rotation, this cam lesion engages the anterosuperior acetabulum. The shear forces generated by the cam bump pushing into the joint cause 'outside-in' delamination of the adjacent acetabular articular cartilage, often leaving the labrum initially intact but separated from the underlying cartilage.

Question 2493

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old male athlete presents with anterior groin pain that is exacerbated by deep hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs reveal an osseous prominence at the anterolateral head-neck junction. What radiographic measurement is widely used to quantify this specific deformity, and what is the typical diagnostic threshold?

. Center-edge angle; less than 20 degrees.
. Tonnis angle; greater than 10 degrees.
. Alpha angle; greater than 50 to 55 degrees.
. Beta angle; less than 45 degrees.
. Neck-shaft angle; greater than 140 degrees.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Center-edge angle; less than 20 degrees.


Explanation

The patient's presentation is characteristic of Femoroacetabular Impingement (FAI), specifically cam morphology. A cam lesion is an osseous bump at the femoral head-neck junction that disrupts the normal spherical shape of the head. It is quantified on Dunn view or cross-table lateral radiographs, or MRI, using the Alpha angle. An Alpha angle greater than 50 to 55 degrees is considered diagnostic of cam morphology. The Center-edge and Tonnis angles evaluate acetabular coverage (dysplasia).

Question 2494

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Preoperative imaging reveals an anterior glenoid bone loss of 25%. Which of the following surgical procedures is the most appropriate definitive management for this patient?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer)
. Remplissage procedure alone
. Capsular plication
. Putti-Platt procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

In the setting of significant anterior glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%), soft tissue stabilization alone (e.g., Bankart repair) has unacceptably high failure rates. A bone block procedure, such as the Latarjet procedure (transfer of the coracoid process with the attached conjoint tendon to the anterior glenoid), is the gold standard for restoring stability.

Question 2495

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old elite baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. MRI shows partial-thickness articular-sided tearing of the posterior supraspinatus and anterior infraspinatus, along with posterosuperior labral fraying. What is the primary pathomechanism?

. Subcoracoid impingement
. Primary outlet impingement
. Internal impingement
. Quadrilateral space syndrome
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subcoracoid impingement


Explanation

Internal impingement occurs in overhead athletes during maximal abduction and external rotation (late cocking phase). The greater tuberosity abuts the posterosuperior glenoid, pinching the articular side of the rotator cuff and the posterosuperior labrum.

Question 2496

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Which muscle of the rotator cuff is primarily responsible for internal rotation of the humerus?

. Supraspinatus
. Infraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis
. Teres major

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus


Explanation

The subscapularis inserts onto the lesser tuberosity of the humerus and is the primary internal rotator of the shoulder among the rotator cuff muscles. The infraspinatus and teres minor are external rotators, and the supraspinatus initiates abduction.

Question 2497

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 38-year-old male presents with sudden onset, excruciating right shoulder pain that awakened him from sleep, lasting for 5 days before slowly resolving. Following pain resolution, he notices profound weakness in elevating and externally rotating his arm. MRI of the cervical spine and shoulder are normal. EMG demonstrates denervation isolated to the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. C5 cervical radiculopathy
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome (Idiopathic brachial neuritis)
. Acute massive rotator cuff tear
. Quadrilateral space syndrome
. Suprascapular nerve entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. C5 cervical radiculopathy


Explanation

Parsonage-Turner syndrome (idiopathic brachial neuritis) classically presents with a viral prodrome followed by severe, acute shoulder/girdle pain lasting days to weeks. As the pain subsides, profound weakness and atrophy of the affected muscles (often innervated by the suprascapular, axillary, or long thoracic nerves) become apparent. The normal MRIs and classical biphasic clinical course distinguish it from structural tears or isolated compressive neuropathies.

Question 2498

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

When evaluating a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the concept of the 'glenoid track' is utilized to determine the risk of a Hill-Sachs lesion engaging the anterior glenoid rim. Which of the following best describes an 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion?

. The Hill-Sachs lesion width is narrower than the glenoid track width
. The intact anterior glenoid rim provides a fulcrum, preventing engagement
. The medial margin of the Hill-Sachs lesion extends medial to the glenoid track
. The lesion predominantly engages in internal rotation and forward elevation
. The Hill-Sachs lesion is located entirely within the articular surface of the humerus, lateral to the footprint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The Hill-Sachs lesion width is narrower than the glenoid track width


Explanation

The glenoid track concept evaluates the interaction between bipolar bone loss (glenoid bone loss and Hill-Sachs lesion). The glenoid track represents the contact zone of the glenoid on the humeral head during abduction and external rotation. A Hill-Sachs lesion is 'off-track' (and thus will engage the anterior glenoid rim) if its medial margin extends further medial than the medial margin of the glenoid track.

Question 2499

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In the evaluation of recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the 'glenoid track' concept is utilized to determine if a Hill-Sachs lesion is engaging. By definition, a Hill-Sachs lesion is considered 'off-track' (engaging) if its medial margin extends medial to the glenoid track. In a patient with an intact anterior glenoid rim (no bony Bankart), the width of the glenoid track is calculated as approximately what percentage of the native anterior-posterior glenoid width?

. 63%
. 73%
. 83%
. 93%
. 100%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 63%


Explanation

The glenoid track is defined as the contact zone between the glenoid and the humeral head when the arm is in abduction and external rotation. In a normal shoulder without anterior bone loss, the width of the glenoid track is approximately 83% of the anterior-posterior width of the native glenoid. If there is an anterior glenoid bone defect, the track width is reduced by the width of that defect (83% of native width minus the defect width).

Question 2500

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player undergoes an anterior stabilization procedure for recurrent shoulder dislocations. Preoperative CT reveals a 25% loss of the anterior glenoid rim. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate to restore glenohumeral stability?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Latarjet procedure
. Remplissage procedure
. Putti-Platt procedure
. Superior labrum anterior to posterior (SLAP) repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

An anterior glenoid bone loss of greater than 20-25% is an absolute indication for a bony augmentation procedure, such as the Latarjet procedure. Soft tissue repairs alone have an unacceptably high failure rate in the setting of critical bone loss.