Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

A patient is evaluated for shoulder pain. The examiner elevates the arm to 90 degrees in the scapular plane and maximally internally rotates the arm so the thumb points downward. The examiner applies downward pressure. Weakness compared to the contralateral side is primarily indicative of pathology in which muscle?

A 20-year-old male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Advanced imaging reveals an anterior glenoid bone defect comprising 25% of the glenoid width. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate to restore stability?

A 32-year-old male presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation after an epileptic seizure. A CT scan confirms a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 35% of the anterior humeral head articular surface. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate to prevent recurrent instability?

A 21-year-old collegiate rugby player undergoes a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with 25% glenoid bone loss. Which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during the coracoid transfer and fixation?

A 21-year-old rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. A 3D CT scan of the shoulder reveals 26% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 28-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with chronic shoulder pain. MRI arthrogram reveals a Partial Articular-Sided Supraspinatus Tendon Avulsion (PASTA) lesion. Nonoperative management has failed. Intraoperatively, the tear is assessed to involve 60% of the normal footprint depth. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

During arthroscopic stabilization for a 20-year-old athlete with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the surgeon visualizes an anterior capsulolabral injury. The labrum and the anterior band of the inferior glenohumeral ligament (IGHL) are stripped off the glenoid and medially displaced along the scapular neck, but the anterior periosteal sleeve remains intact. This lesion is most accurately classified as which of the following?

In the surgical management of recurrent anterior shoulder instability, what is the primary biomechanical objective of the arthroscopic Remplissage procedure?

A 22-year-old elite baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Physical examination reveals a positive apprehension test that is relieved by a relocation maneuver. MRI arthrogram is likely to show a SLAP tear along with what other pathology?

A 22-year-old competitive rugby player presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. MRI reveals a 25% anterior glenoid bone loss and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

A 30-year-old volleyball player presents with insidious onset of posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. Exam reveals isolated infraspinatus atrophy. Supraspinatus strength is normal. Where is the most likely site of nerve compression?

A 68-year-old male presents with pseudoparalysis of the shoulder. MRI shows a massive, retracted rotator cuff tear. Which of the following MRI findings is the strongest predictor of an irreparable tear?

A 42-year-old male presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation after a seizure. CT reveals an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs) involving 35% of the articular surface. Which surgical intervention is most appropriate?

A 55-year-old male presents with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He demonstrates severe shoulder weakness and an inability to actively externally rotate his arm, with a positive hornblower sign. Which of the following procedures is most appropriate?

A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with isolated weakness of the infraspinatus muscle and vague posterior shoulder pain. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is the most likely location of the nerve compression?

A 25-year-old male undergoes a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with 25% glenoid bone loss. Postoperatively, he demonstrates weakness in elbow flexion and decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of the forearm. Which nerve was most likely injured during the procedure?

A 32-year-old elite volleyball player presents with posterior shoulder pain and isolated weakness in external rotation. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is the cyst most likely located?

A 55-year-old male presents with chronic pseudoparalysis of the shoulder due to a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has an intact subscapularis and preserved deltoid function. Which tendon transfer is most appropriate to restore active external rotation and forward elevation?

A 40-year-old male presents with chronic anterior shoulder pain. MRI shows a subscapularis tear and medial subluxation of the long head of the biceps tendon. Which anatomic structure must be compromised for the biceps tendon to subluxate medially?

In the evaluation of chronic massive rotator cuff tears, the Goutallier classification is used to assess fatty infiltration on CT or MRI. What does Goutallier stage 3 signify?