Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

A 55-year-old manual laborer presents with persistent anterior shoulder pain. MRI confirms an isolated Type II SLAP tear. Given the patient's age and occupation, what is the most reliable surgical intervention to provide pain relief and functional recovery?

A 25-year-old athlete undergoes arthroscopic stabilization for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. MRI reveals an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion and 10% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the primary biomechanical rationale for performing an arthroscopic remplissage alongside a Bankart repair?

A 28-year-old elite volleyball player presents with painless weakness in external rotation. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with a normal supraspinatus. MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst. Where is the cyst most likely located to cause these specific findings?

During arthroscopic evaluation of a patient with anterior shoulder pain and a positive belly-press test, an isolated full-thickness tear of the subscapularis tendon is identified. Which anatomical structure is consistently utilized as a landmark identifying the superior border of the subscapularis?

A 65-year-old male presents with massive rotator cuff tear. On physical examination, he demonstrates a positive Hornblower's sign. Which muscle is primarily deficient, and what is the typical pathomorphologic finding?

A 25-year-old hockey player presents with anterior groin pain that worsens with deep flexion. The FADIR (Flexion, Adduction, Internal Rotation) test elicits sharp groin pain. Imaging reveals a substantial alpha angle. This test is highly sensitive for which of the following conditions?

During an evaluation for shoulder pain, the patient holds their arm in 90 degrees of flexion, 10 degrees of adduction, and maximal internal rotation (thumb down). Downward force elicits deep shoulder pain. The pain is relieved when the test is repeated in maximal external rotation (palm up). This clinical finding is most specific for pathology of which structure?

During the Active Compression Test (O'Brien's test), a patient experiences deep shoulder pain when the arm is in 90 degrees of forward flexion, 10 degrees of adduction, and internal rotation (thumb pointing down). The pain is entirely relieved by external rotation (thumb pointing up). Which structure is most likely injured?

A 55-year-old female complains of weakness and anterior shoulder pain. The examiner places the patient's palm on her contralateral shoulder and asks her to resist as the examiner tries to pull the hand anteriorly away from the shoulder. She is unable to resist the pull. Which tendon is likely torn?

A 20-year-old swimmer undergoes apprehension and relocation tests of the shoulder. Anterior apprehension is noted, which is subsequently relieved when the examiner applies a posteriorly directed force on the proximal humerus (relocation test). The relief of apprehension during this maneuver is most specific for what pathology?

During a physical exam, a patient demonstrates an inability to maintain maximal external rotation of the shoulder when the examiner places the arm in 20 degrees of abduction and maximum external rotation. Upon release, the arm drifts into internal rotation. Which tendon is most likely involved?

A 24-year-old hockey player complains of insidious onset groin pain. The examiner flexes the hip to 90 degrees, adducts, and internally rotates the thigh (FADIR test), which reproduces sharp anterior groin pain. This test is highly sensitive for which condition?

A 55-year-old man presents with anterior shoulder pain and weakness after a fall. A Belly Press test is equivocal, but the Bear Hug test is strongly positive with inability to hold the hand to the opposite shoulder against resistance. Which portion of the affected muscle is most likely compromised?

A 22-year-old hockey player presents with chronic anterior groin pain. The examiner flexes the hip to 90 degrees, then adducts and internally rotates it, strictly reproducing the patient's sharp groin pain. This test (FADIR) is most sensitive for diagnosing which condition?

In a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the relocation test is performed by applying a posteriorly directed force on the proximal humerus while the arm is abducted and externally rotated. What specific clinical response constitutes a true positive relocation test?

A 55-year-old patient presents with shoulder pain after a lifting injury. The examiner performs the "bear hug" test by placing the patient's palm on their opposite shoulder and resisting the patient's attempt to press the hand downward. Weakness in this maneuver most specifically indicates a tear of which structure?

A 30-year-old male complains of groin pain with deep hip flexion. The examiner flexes the hip to 90 degrees, adducts it, and internally rotates the thigh, which reproduces the patient's sharp groin pain. This test is highly sensitive for which of the following conditions?

A baseball pitcher complains of deep shoulder pain. The examiner flexes the shoulder to 90 degrees, adducts it 10 degrees, and maximally internally rotates the arm, asking the patient to resist downward pressure. Pain is elicited but relieved when the arm is externally rotated and tested again. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A patient complains of anterior shoulder pain. The examiner asks the patient to flex the elbow to 90 degrees with the forearm pronated. The examiner then resists the patient's active attempt to supinate the forearm and externally rotate the humerus. Pain in the bicipital groove indicates pathology of which structure?