Question 2421
Topic: Shoulder & Hip SportsCorrect Answer & Explanation
. Articular-sided rotator cuff tear
Practice Set 122 of 142
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Shoulder & Hip Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Articular-sided rotator cuff tear
. Femoroacetabular osteoplasty and labral repair
Figures 1 through 3 are the MRI scans of a 56-year-old woman in good health who reports a 6-month history of shoulder pain and external rotation weakness. Her radiographs are unremarkable. What is the diagnosis?
. Rotator cuff tear
. Pain before surgery
A 30-year-old male sustains a traumatic posterior shoulder dislocation during a seizure. Upon successful closed reduction in the emergency department, an MRI is obtained which reveals a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following best describes the precise anatomic location of this bony defect?
. Posterolateral aspect of the humeral head
A 21-year-old football player undergoes an MRI for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. The MRI reveals an avulsion of the anterior labrum where the labrum and the intact periosteum are stripped and displaced medially along the glenoid neck. What is the specific eponym for this pathology?
. Bankart lesion
A 22-year-old male requires arthroscopic stabilization for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Advanced imaging calculates his glenoid bone loss at 10%, but identifies an 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following procedures is indicated in addition to an arthroscopic Bankart repair to prevent engagement of the defect?
. Latarjet procedure
A 28-year-old overhead athlete presents with posterior shoulder pain and profound weakness in external rotation. Forward elevation strength is normal. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus. An MRI shows a paralabral cyst. Where is the most likely location of the nerve compression?
. Suprascapular notch
A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with a symptomatic Type II SLAP tear that has failed conservative management. Which surgical intervention is most appropriate?
. Biceps tenodesis
A 22-year-old male rugby player presents with his fourth anterior shoulder dislocation. A pre-operative CT scan demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following surgical interventions provides the most biomechanically sound and durable stabilization for this patient?
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors
A 35-year-old male presents to the ER following a first-time generalized tonic-clonic seizure. He complains of right shoulder pain and his arm is locked in adduction and internal rotation. Passive external rotation is severely restricted. An AP radiograph shows a 'lightbulb' sign
. What is the most common associated bony defect seen with this specific injury pattern?
. Greater tuberosity fracture
A 40-year-old male presents with weakness in his right shoulder that began 3 weeks ago. He initially experienced excruciating, acute shoulder pain that woke him from sleep and lasted for several days before subsiding. He denies any trauma but notes a viral respiratory infection a month prior. On exam, he has prominent scapular winging and profound weakness in forward elevation. EMG shows denervation in the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and serratus anterior. What is the most appropriate management?
. Corticosteroid injection into the subacromial space
A 45-year-old recreational tennis player presents with chronic anterior shoulder pain. The pain is strongly reproduced by passive forward flexion, internal rotation, and adduction. MRI of the shoulder reveals subcoracoid stenosis and localized edema in the subscapularis tendon insertion. Based on these findings, he is diagnosed with coracoid impingement syndrome. On an axial MRI slice, what anatomical distance between the tip of the coracoid and the lesser tuberosity is classically considered diagnostic for this condition?
. < 15 mm
A 40-year-old female presents to the emergency department after a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. She has a locked, internally rotated shoulder.
CT imaging reveals a locked posterior shoulder dislocation with a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 35% of the humeral head articular surface. Which surgical procedure is most appropriate?
. Arthroscopic posterior Bankart repair
A 28-year-old elite volleyball player presents with painless weakness in external rotation of his right shoulder. His abduction strength and forward elevation are symmetric to the contralateral side. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle belly.
Where is the most likely location of nerve compression?
. Suprascapular notch
A 60-year-old female sustains a two-part surgical neck fracture of the proximal humerus. Examination reveals decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of the deltoid. Which of the following muscles is also most likely to exhibit weakness due to this specific neurologic injury?
. Infraspinatus
A 29-year-old elite volleyball player presents with insidious onset of right shoulder weakness. Clinical examination reveals isolated profound atrophy of the infraspinatus with completely preserved supraspinatus bulk. An MRI is most likely to reveal a paralabral cyst compressing the nerve at which anatomical location?
. Suprascapular notch
A 24-year-old active male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan demonstrates 12% anterior glenoid bone loss. An MRI reveals an off-track Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate surgical management?
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone
A 45-year-old male presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation following a seizure. CT imaging shows an anteromedial humeral head impression fracture (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 30% of the articular surface. The glenoid is intact. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
. Closed reduction and spica cast immobilization
A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset of posterior shoulder pain and weakness. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst located strictly at the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following clinical deficits is most likely present?
. Weakness in both shoulder abduction and external rotation