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Question 2421

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
Internal impingement is characterized by which of the following anatomic lesions?
. Subscapularis tear
. Bursal-sided rotator cuff tear
. Articular-sided rotator cuff tear
. Tight anterior capsule
. Laxity of the posterior capsule

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Articular-sided rotator cuff tear


Explanation

Internal impingement is characterized by articular-sided partial-thickness rotator cuff tears and superior glenoid labral tears. The capsule is characterized by laxity anteriorly and tightness posteriorly.

Question 2422

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old patient has had severe groin pain for many months and is unable to engage in any physical activity. The radiograph of the pelvis shows minimal arthritis. The lateral radiograph of the hip is shown in Figure 33a. An MR-arthrogram is shown in Figure 33b. What is the most appropriate treatment at this stage?
. Hip arthroscopy and labral debridement
. Femoroacetabular osteoplasty and labral repair
. Femoral osteotomy
. Hemiarthroplasty
. Total hip arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoroacetabular osteoplasty and labral repair


Explanation

The patient has femoroacetabular impingement. The prominence on the femoral neck has resulted in a labral tear and detachment. Labral debridement without addressing the underlying anatomic abnormality is likely to result in a suboptimal outcome. The most appropriate treatment, when indicated, is shaving down of the femoral neck to remove the bony prominence and attachment of the labrum.

Question 2423

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

Figures 1 through 3 are the MRI scans of a 56-year-old woman in good health who reports a 6-month history of shoulder pain and external rotation weakness. Her radiographs are unremarkable. What is the diagnosis?

. Rotator cuff tear
. Anteroinferior labral tear
. Suprascapular nerve compression
. Quadrilateral space syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rotator cuff tear


Explanation

31The images reveal T2-weighted MRI sequences with edema isolated to the infraspinatus. In the absence of a tear in the infraspinatus tendon, the edema is most likely due to compression of the suprascapular nerve in the spinoglenoid notch. As this pathology persists, progressive muscle atrophy and fatty infiltration can result. Compression of the suprascapular nerve in the suprascapular notch would have resulted in edema and weakness in both the supra- and infraspinatus muscles. Compression is commonly caused by cysts from the joint secondary to labral tears. A rotator cuff tear of the infraspinatus is not identified on these images, and there is no history of trauma provided. There is no evidence of an anteroinferior labral tear, nor would this be expected to result in external rotation weakness or MRI abnormality of the infraspinatus. Quadrilateral space syndrome results in compression of the axillary nerve, which supplies the teres minor.Correcr

Question 2424

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
What is the most likely predictor of postsurgical pain following a coracoid transfer procedure for recurrent shoulder instability?
. Suboptimal graft placement
. Pain before surgery
. Progression of osteoarthritis
. Previous surgical treatment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pain before surgery


Explanation

Recurrent glenohumeral instability with anteroinferior glenoid bone loss is best treated with a coracoid transfer. In studies of coracoid transfers for recurrent instability and anterior glenoid deficiency, patients who reported pain before surgery were 20 times more likely to have pain after surgery that compromised the functional outcome. Optimal graft placement correlated with better functional outcomes and less progression of arthrosis, but not with pain. Consequently, poor graft position, arthritis progression, and prior surgical treatment are not as consistently predictive of pain after surgery.

Question 2425

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old male sustains a traumatic posterior shoulder dislocation during a seizure. Upon successful closed reduction in the emergency department, an MRI is obtained which reveals a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following best describes the precise anatomic location of this bony defect?

. Posterolateral aspect of the humeral head
. Anteromedial aspect of the humeral head
. Anteroinferior glenoid rim
. Posteroinferior glenoid rim
. Superior glenoid labrum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral aspect of the humeral head


Explanation

A reverse Hill-Sachs lesion is an impaction fracture of the anteromedial aspect of the humeral head. It occurs during a posterior shoulder dislocation when the anterior aspect of the humeral head impacts against the hard posterior rim of the glenoid. In contrast, a classic Hill-Sachs lesion occurs during an anterior dislocation and is located on the posterolateral aspect of the humeral head.

Question 2426

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 21-year-old football player undergoes an MRI for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. The MRI reveals an avulsion of the anterior labrum where the labrum and the intact periosteum are stripped and displaced medially along the glenoid neck. What is the specific eponym for this pathology?

. Bankart lesion
. ALPSA lesion
. Perthes lesion
. GLAD lesion
. HAGL lesion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bankart lesion


Explanation

An ALPSA (Anterior Labroligamentous Periosteal Sleeve Avulsion) lesion involves the anterior labrum being stripped from the glenoid rim along with an intact periosteal sleeve, displacing medially. In contrast, a classic Bankart lesion involves a torn periosteum.

Question 2427

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old male requires arthroscopic stabilization for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Advanced imaging calculates his glenoid bone loss at 10%, but identifies an 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following procedures is indicated in addition to an arthroscopic Bankart repair to prevent engagement of the defect?

. Latarjet procedure
. Remplissage procedure
. SLAP repair
. Biceps tenodesis
. Coracoclavicular ligament reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latarjet procedure


Explanation

An 'off-track' Hill-Sachs lesion will engage the anterior glenoid rim during abduction and external rotation, causing failure of an isolated Bankart repair. A Remplissage procedure (tenodesis of the infraspinatus into the humeral defect) makes the defect extra-articular, preventing engagement.

Question 2428

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old overhead athlete presents with posterior shoulder pain and profound weakness in external rotation. Forward elevation strength is normal. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus. An MRI shows a paralabral cyst. Where is the most likely location of the nerve compression?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular space
. Spiral groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

Isolated weakness and atrophy of the infraspinatus points to compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch. Compression at the suprascapular notch would typically involve denervation of both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles.

Question 2429

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with a symptomatic Type II SLAP tear that has failed conservative management. Which surgical intervention is most appropriate?

. Biceps tenodesis
. Biceps tenotomy
. Arthroscopic SLAP repair
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet)
. Subacromial decompression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biceps tenodesis


Explanation

In young, active overhead throwing athletes, the preferred surgical treatment for a Type II SLAP tear is arthroscopic repair. Biceps tenodesis alters the anatomy and is generally reserved for older patients or those with recurrent tears.

Question 2430

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old male rugby player presents with his fourth anterior shoulder dislocation. A pre-operative CT scan demonstrates 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following surgical interventions provides the most biomechanically sound and durable stabilization for this patient?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors
. Open Bankart repair with inferior capsular shift
. Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer)
. Arthroscopic remplissage alone
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with suture anchors


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure involves transferring the coracoid process with the attached conjoined tendon to the anterior glenoid neck. It is indicated in patients with recurrent anterior shoulder instability who have critical glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%). It provides a triple blocking effect: bone block, sling effect of the conjoined tendon, and capsular repair.

Question 2431

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old male presents to the ER following a first-time generalized tonic-clonic seizure. He complains of right shoulder pain and his arm is locked in adduction and internal rotation. Passive external rotation is severely restricted. An AP radiograph shows a 'lightbulb' sign

. What is the most common associated bony defect seen with this specific injury pattern?

. Greater tuberosity fracture
. Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion
. Bony Bankart lesion
. Coracoid fracture
. Anterior glenoid rim fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Greater tuberosity fracture


Explanation

The patient has a posterior shoulder dislocation, classically associated with seizures, electrocution, or high-energy trauma. The 'lightbulb' sign is typical on AP radiographs due to internal rotation of the humerus. The most common associated bony defect is a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion, which is an impaction fracture of the anteromedial aspect of the humeral head against the posterior glenoid rim.

Question 2432

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old male presents with weakness in his right shoulder that began 3 weeks ago. He initially experienced excruciating, acute shoulder pain that woke him from sleep and lasted for several days before subsiding. He denies any trauma but notes a viral respiratory infection a month prior. On exam, he has prominent scapular winging and profound weakness in forward elevation. EMG shows denervation in the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and serratus anterior. What is the most appropriate management?

. Corticosteroid injection into the subacromial space
. Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair
. Observation, physical therapy, and supportive care
. Immediate surgical decompression of the suprascapular nerve
. Anterior cervical discectomy and fusion (ACDF)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Corticosteroid injection into the subacromial space


Explanation

This clinical presentation is classic for Parsonage-Turner Syndrome (idiopathic brachial neuritis). It typically begins with acute, severe shoulder pain that gradually subsides, followed by profound weakness/paralysis of shoulder girdle muscles (commonly involving the long thoracic or suprascapular nerves). The condition is self-limiting in the vast majority of cases. The treatment is primarily supportive with observation, pain management, and physical therapy to maintain ROM.

Question 2433

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old recreational tennis player presents with chronic anterior shoulder pain. The pain is strongly reproduced by passive forward flexion, internal rotation, and adduction. MRI of the shoulder reveals subcoracoid stenosis and localized edema in the subscapularis tendon insertion. Based on these findings, he is diagnosed with coracoid impingement syndrome. On an axial MRI slice, what anatomical distance between the tip of the coracoid and the lesser tuberosity is classically considered diagnostic for this condition?

. < 15 mm
. < 11 mm
. < 6 mm
. > 20 mm
. > 15 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. < 15 mm


Explanation

Coracoid impingement occurs when the subscapularis tendon is compressed between the coracoid process and the lesser tuberosity. While the normal coracohumeral distance on an axial MRI or CT scan is typically 8 to 11 mm, a narrowed distance of less than 6 mm (in internal rotation) is considered highly suggestive and diagnostic of coracoid impingement.

Question 2434

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old female presents to the emergency department after a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. She has a locked, internally rotated shoulder.

CT imaging reveals a locked posterior shoulder dislocation with a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 35% of the humeral head articular surface. Which surgical procedure is most appropriate?

. Arthroscopic posterior Bankart repair
. Transfer of the lesser tuberosity and subscapularis into the defect
. Structural allograft reconstruction of the humeral head
. Shoulder hemiarthroplasty
. Latarjet procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic posterior Bankart repair


Explanation

The patient has a posterior shoulder dislocation with a medium-sized reverse Hill-Sachs (anteromedial humeral head) defect. The management algorithm depends on the defect size: <20% can often be managed non-operatively or with simple subscapularis transfer (McLaughlin procedure); 20% to 40% defects are best treated with a modified McLaughlin procedure (transfer of the lesser tuberosity with the attached subscapularis tendon into the defect) to provide structural bone fill and dynamic stabilization; >40-50% defects typically require structural allograft or arthroplasty (hemiarthroplasty or TSA depending on glenoid condition and patient age).

Question 2435

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old elite volleyball player presents with painless weakness in external rotation of his right shoulder. His abduction strength and forward elevation are symmetric to the contralateral side. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle belly.

Where is the most likely location of nerve compression?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Triangular space

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

The patient presents with isolated infraspinatus atrophy and weakness in external rotation, with preserved supraspinatus function (normal abduction). This presentation is characteristic of suprascapular nerve compression at the spinoglenoid notch. Compression at the more proximal suprascapular notch (beneath the transverse scapular ligament) would typically affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus, leading to weakness in both abduction and external rotation. A paralabral cyst (often associated with posterior SLAP tears in overhead athletes) is a common cause of compression at the spinoglenoid notch.

Question 2436

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 60-year-old female sustains a two-part surgical neck fracture of the proximal humerus. Examination reveals decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of the deltoid. Which of the following muscles is also most likely to exhibit weakness due to this specific neurologic injury?

. Infraspinatus
. Supraspinatus
. Teres minor
. Teres major
. Subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Infraspinatus


Explanation

The patient has an axillary nerve injury, which is a common complication of proximal humerus fractures. The axillary nerve innervates both the deltoid and the teres minor muscles.

Question 2437

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 29-year-old elite volleyball player presents with insidious onset of right shoulder weakness. Clinical examination reveals isolated profound atrophy of the infraspinatus with completely preserved supraspinatus bulk. An MRI is most likely to reveal a paralabral cyst compressing the nerve at which anatomical location?

. Suprascapular notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Triangular interval
. Spiral groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus muscle. Compression more proximally at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 2438

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old active male presents with recurrent anterior shoulder instability. A 3D CT scan demonstrates 12% anterior glenoid bone loss. An MRI reveals an off-track Hill-Sachs lesion. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone
. Open Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with Remplissage
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with distal tibial allograft
. Nonoperative management with physical therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair alone


Explanation

In patients with subcritical glenoid bone loss (<15-20%) and an off-track (engaging) Hill-Sachs lesion, arthroscopic Bankart repair combined with remplissage is indicated. This fills the humeral defect with the infraspinatus tendon, preventing engagement during abduction and external rotation.

Question 2439

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old male presents with a locked posterior shoulder dislocation following a seizure. CT imaging shows an anteromedial humeral head impression fracture (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 30% of the articular surface. The glenoid is intact. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Closed reduction and spica cast immobilization
. Transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect (Modified McLaughlin)
. Anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty
. Latarjet procedure
. Arthroscopic posterior capsulorrhaphy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed reduction and spica cast immobilization


Explanation

For a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 20% to 40% of the articular surface, the modified McLaughlin procedure is indicated. It involves transferring the lesser tuberosity and attached subscapularis into the anteromedial humeral defect to restore stability.

Question 2440

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset of posterior shoulder pain and weakness. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst located strictly at the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following clinical deficits is most likely present?

. Weakness in both shoulder abduction and external rotation
. Isolated weakness in external rotation
. Isolated weakness in internal rotation
. Loss of sensation over the lateral deltoid
. Weakness in initiation of shoulder abduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Weakness in both shoulder abduction and external rotation


Explanation

A cyst at the spinoglenoid notch compresses the suprascapular nerve after it has already innervated the supraspinatus. This leads to isolated denervation of the infraspinatus, resulting in weakness in external rotation only.