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Question 2561

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player has recurrent anterior shoulder instability. CT scan shows a 15% anterior glenoid bone loss and a Hill-Sachs lesion. Applying the glenoid track concept, an off-track lesion is determined. Which of the following best defines an off-track Hill-Sachs lesion?

. The Hill-Sachs lesion is entirely medial to the glenoid track margin
. The medial margin of the Hill-Sachs lesion extends medial to the glenoid track
. The Hill-Sachs lesion engages the glenoid at 45 degrees of abduction
. The Hill-Sachs lesion is covered by intact articular cartilage
. The anterior glenoid bone loss is less than 10%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The medial margin of the Hill-Sachs lesion extends medial to the glenoid track


Explanation

An off-track Hill-Sachs lesion occurs when its medial margin extends medial to the glenoid track, meaning it can engage the anterior glenoid rim. This scenario typically necessitates a procedure to address the bone loss or an adjunct like a Remplissage to prevent recurrent instability.

Question 2562

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old hockey player presents with anterior hip pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate a pistol-grip deformity and an alpha angle of 65 degrees. What is the primary mechanism of labral injury in this condition?

. Pincer impingement compressing the labrum against the femoral neck
. Shear forces at the chondrolabral junction during hip flexion
. Direct contusion from an abnormally deep acetabulum
. Avulsion of the labrum via the ligamentum teres
. Degeneration secondary to a slipped capital femoral epiphysis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Shear forces at the chondrolabral junction during hip flexion


Explanation

The patient has Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) characterized by an elevated alpha angle. The aspherical femoral head creates outside-in shear forces at the chondrolabral junction during flexion, leading to labral tears and cartilage delamination.

Question 2563

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability, the subscapularis muscle is typically split to expose the anterior glenoid. Which nerve is at greatest risk of injury during the mobilization and transfer of the coracoid process through this split?

. Axillary nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Radial nerve
. Median nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Musculocutaneous nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve penetrates the coracobrachialis muscle distal to the coracoid process. It is highly susceptible to stretch or direct injury during retraction and coracoid transfer in the Latarjet procedure.

Question 2564

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate hockey player presents with groin pain exacerbated by deep flexion and internal rotation. Radiographs demonstrate an alpha angle of 65 degrees. During the pathomechanical process of this specific deformity, where does the maximal shear stress occur?

. Anterosuperior labrum and adjacent acetabular cartilage
. Posteroinferior labrum
. Ligamentum teres
. Posterior superior iliac spine
. Ischiofemoral space

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterosuperior labrum and adjacent acetabular cartilage


Explanation

An alpha angle greater than 55 degrees indicates a Cam deformity, which creates an aspherical femoral head. During flexion and internal rotation, this prominent bone causes shear stress at the anterosuperior chondrolabral junction, leading to labral tears and cartilage delamination.

Question 2565

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old elite volleyball attacker complains of insidious onset posterior shoulder pain and isolated external rotation weakness. EMG reveals denervation isolated to the infraspinatus. What pathology is most likely responsible for this presentation?

. Anterior labral tear
. Suprascapular notch cyst
. Spinoglenoid notch cyst
. Quadrilateral space syndrome
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch cyst


Explanation

A ganglion cyst at the spinoglenoid notch compresses the suprascapular nerve after it has already innervated the supraspinatus, leading to isolated infraspinatus weakness. These cysts are highly associated with posterior labral tears.

Question 2566

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During a physical examination of a patient with suspected anterior shoulder instability, the examiner applies a posterior-directed force to the humeral head while the arm is abducted to 90 degrees and externally rotated. A sudden release of the posterior force reproduces the patient's apprehension. What is this test called?

. Load and shift test
. Jobe relocation test
. Surprise (anterior release) test
. O'Brien test
. Kim test

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Surprise (anterior release) test


Explanation

The Surprise test (or anterior release test) is performed after the Jobe relocation test by abruptly removing the posterior stabilizing force. A positive test is the return of apprehension and is highly specific for anterior instability.

Question 2567

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old hockey player undergoes hip arthroscopy for symptomatic femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). During osteochondroplasty of the cam lesion at the head-neck junction, the surgeon must be careful to avoid over-resection. Resecting more than what percentage of the femoral neck diameter substantially increases the risk of a post-operative femoral neck fracture?

. 10%
. 20%
. 30%
. 40%
. 50%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 30%


Explanation

Biomechanical studies have demonstrated that resecting more than 30% of the femoral neck diameter during cam osteochondroplasty significantly decreases the load-to-failure. This greatly increases the risk of an iatrogenic femoral neck fracture.

Question 2568

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old professional hockey player presents with deep anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. An AP pelvis radiograph demonstrates a 'crossover sign', where the anterior wall of the acetabulum crosses lateral to the posterior wall before reaching the lateral edge of the sourcil. This radiographic finding is pathognomonic for which condition?

. Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement
. Acetabular retroversion
. Coxa profunda
. Protrusio acetabuli
. Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular retroversion


Explanation

The crossover sign is the classic radiographic indicator of cranial or global acetabular retroversion, a common cause of pincer-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI). Normally, the anterior wall line remains medial to the posterior wall line throughout its course.

Question 2569

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old professional volleyball player presents with progressive, painless weakness in his dominant shoulder. Physical examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle with normal bulk of the supraspinatus. External rotation strength is 3/5. Compression of a nerve is suspected. At what specific anatomic location is the entrapment most likely occurring?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Spiral groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus and then passes through the spinoglenoid notch to innervate the infraspinatus. Entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch (often due to a paralabral cyst in overhead athletes) causes isolated infraspinatus atrophy and weakness. Entrapment at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 2570

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 60-year-old male has an asymptomatic, full-thickness supraspinatus tear discovered incidentally on an MRI taken for neck pain. What is the most likely natural history of this rotator cuff tear if managed non-operatively?

. Spontaneous healing of the tendon tear
. Progression in tear size and eventual development of symptoms
. Rapid progression to cuff tear arthropathy within 12 months
. Development of classic adhesive capsulitis
. Regression of existing fatty infiltration in the muscle belly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Progression in tear size and eventual development of symptoms


Explanation

Asymptomatic rotator cuff tears frequently enlarge over time. Studies have shown that up to 50% will become symptomatic within 2-3 years, and the progression of tear size correlates strongly with the onset of pain and dysfunction. Spontaneous healing of full-thickness tears does not occur, and fatty infiltration is generally irreversible.

Question 2571

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old elite tennis player presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of serving. Physical examination reveals glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD). The diagnosis of internal impingement is suspected. Which structures are most likely impinging on one another?

. Subscapularis tendon and the middle glenohumeral ligament
. Undersurface of the supraspinatus/infraspinatus tendons and the posterosuperior glenoid labrum
. Long head of the biceps tendon and the superior labrum
. Coracoacromial arch and the bursal surface of the supraspinatus tendon
. Infraspinatus muscle belly and the spinoglenoid notch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Undersurface of the supraspinatus/infraspinatus tendons and the posterosuperior glenoid labrum


Explanation

Internal impingement typically occurs in overhead athletes during maximal abduction and external rotation (late cocking phase). It is caused by the impingement of the articular (undersurface) side of the posterosuperior rotator cuff (supraspinatus and infraspinatus) against the posterosuperior glenoid labrum.

Question 2572

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old male slips on ice and falls on an outstretched hand. He presents with pain and weakness during internal rotation. A tear of the upper border of the subscapularis tendon is suspected. Which physical examination test is most sensitive and specific for evaluating an upper subscapularis tear?

. Neer impingement sign
. Lift-off test
. Bear hug test
. Speed's test
. Hornblower's sign

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bear hug test


Explanation

The bear hug test and the belly-press test are highly sensitive and specific for evaluating tears of the upper portion of the subscapularis. The lift-off test requires full internal rotation and is more indicative of a complete or lower subscapularis tear. Hornblower's sign evaluates the teres minor.

Question 2573

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old male is brought to the emergency department after a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. His right shoulder is locked in internal rotation and adduction, and he has a mechanical block to external rotation. An AP radiograph shows a 'lightbulb' appearance of the humeral head. Which associated skeletal defect is most commonly present in this specific type of dislocation?

. Bankart lesion
. Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion
. Greater tuberosity fracture
. Anterior labroligamentous periosteal sleeve avulsion (ALPSA)
. Coracoid process fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion


Explanation

The clinical presentation (locked in internal rotation after a seizure) and the radiographic 'lightbulb' sign (due to fixed internal rotation) are classic for a posterior shoulder dislocation. This injury is strongly associated with a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion, which is an impaction fracture of the anteromedial aspect of the humeral head against the posterior glenoid rim.

Question 2574

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During an open Latarjet procedure for severe anterior shoulder instability with significant glenoid bone loss, the coracoid process is osteotomized and transferred to the anterior glenoid neck. Which specific anatomical structure remains attached to the transferred coracoid process to provide a dynamic 'sling effect'?

. Pectoralis minor
. Conjoint tendon (short head of biceps and coracobrachialis)
. Coracoacromial ligament
. Long head of biceps
. Subscapularis tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Conjoint tendon (short head of biceps and coracobrachialis)


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure involves transferring the coracoid process, along with its attached conjoint tendon (short head of the biceps and coracobrachialis), through a split in the subscapularis muscle to the anterior glenoid. The tension of the conjoint tendon across the anterior-inferior capsule provides a dynamic 'sling' that prevents anterior translation of the humeral head.

Question 2575

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old male presents with posterior shoulder pain and paresthesias over the lateral deltoid. MRI reveals severe teres minor atrophy. Compression in the quadrilateral space is suspected. Which of the following boundaries forms the superior border of this anatomical space?

. Teres major
. Long head of the triceps
. Humeral shaft
. Teres minor
. Subscapularis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Teres minor


Explanation

The quadrilateral space is bordered by the teres minor (superiorly), teres major (inferiorly), long head of the triceps (medially), and the humeral shaft (laterally). It contains the axillary nerve and posterior humeral circumflex artery. Teres minor atrophy is a classic MRI finding in quadrilateral space syndrome.

Question 2576

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Physical examination reveals glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD). Which of the following pathophysiologic mechanisms best explains 'internal impingement' in this patient?

. Impingement of the supraspinatus tendon against the coracoacromial arch
. Contact between the undersurface of the posterosuperior rotator cuff and the posterosuperior glenoid labrum
. Subcoracoid impingement of the subscapularis tendon
. Entrapment of the long head of the biceps brachii in the bicipital groove
. Fraying of the anteroinferior labrum due to obligate anterior translation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Contact between the undersurface of the posterosuperior rotator cuff and the posterosuperior glenoid labrum


Explanation

Internal impingement occurs in overhead athletes when the shoulder is in maximum abduction and external rotation (late cocking phase). This position causes the undersurface of the posterosuperior rotator cuff to impinge against the posterosuperior glenoid labrum, often exacerbated by GIRD and posterior capsular contracture.

Question 2577

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

During a Latarjet procedure for anterior shoulder instability, the coracoid process is osteotomized and transferred to the anterior glenoid. Which nerve is most at risk of injury when mobilizing the conjoint tendon and retracting it medially?

. Axillary nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Radial nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Median nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Musculocutaneous nerve


Explanation

The musculocutaneous nerve enters the deep surface of the coracobrachialis muscle approximately 5 to 8 cm distal to the tip of the coracoid process. Aggressive medial retraction of the conjoint tendon during a Latarjet procedure can stretch this nerve, resulting in neuropraxia or permanent injury.

Question 2578

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with isolated weakness in shoulder external rotation. He has no pain or history of acute trauma. Physical examination reveals normal strength in forward elevation and abduction, but profound weakness in external rotation with the arm at the side. Atrophy is noted in the infraspinatus fossa. Where is the most likely location of nerve entrapment?

. Suprascapular notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular interval
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Spiral groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Spinoglenoid notch


Explanation

Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the motor branch to the infraspinatus, leading to isolated weakness in external rotation and infraspinatus atrophy. Entrapment at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus, causing weakness in both abduction and external rotation.

Question 2579

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old male complains of an acute onset of severe, unprovoked right shoulder pain that woke him from sleep. The pain lasted for 2 weeks and was unresponsive to NSAIDs. As the pain finally subsided, he noticed profound weakness in overhead elevation and external rotation. MRI of the shoulder demonstrates diffuse T2 hyperintensity in the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles, with structurally intact tendons. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Acute massive rotator cuff tear
. Cervical radiculopathy (C5-C6)
. Adhesive capsulitis
. Parsonage-Turner Syndrome
. Suprascapular nerve cyst

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Parsonage-Turner Syndrome


Explanation

Parsonage-Turner Syndrome (acute brachial neuritis) classically presents with acute, severe, unremitting shoulder pain lasting days to weeks, followed by patchy weakness and atrophy of the shoulder girdle musculature as the pain subsides. MRI shows denervation edema (diffuse T2 hyperintensity) in the affected muscles without tendon disruption.

Question 2580

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

In a patient with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear and an intact subscapularis, a lower trapezius tendon transfer is performed. What is the primary functional goal of this specific transfer?

. Restoration of active internal rotation
. Prevention of anteroinferior glenohumeral dislocation
. Restoration of active external rotation
. Reconstitution of the coracoacromial arch
. Improvement of isolated forward elevation above 120 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Restoration of active external rotation


Explanation

The lower trapezius tendon transfer (often utilizing an Achilles tendon allograft) is indicated for massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears. Its vector closely mimics the infraspinatus, making it highly effective at restoring active external rotation and preventing the 'horn blower's' sign.