Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

A 40-year-old male presents with sudden, severe, unprovoked pain in his right shoulder that awoke him from sleep. The pain lasted for four days and required opioids. As the pain subsided, he noticed profound weakness in shoulder abduction and external rotation. He denies any trauma. MRI of the shoulder is unremarkable. EMG obtained 4 weeks later demonstrates denervation potentials in the supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 38-year-old male suffers a high-energy dashboard injury resulting in a posterior dislocation of the shoulder. He is noted to have an anteromedial humeral head defect (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 35% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

A 40-year-old female presents to the clinic 2 weeks after receiving a viral vaccination. She describes a sudden onset of excruciating right shoulder pain that lasted for a week, which has now subsided and been replaced by profound weakness in external rotation and abduction. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 25-year-old male undergoes a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with 25% glenoid bone loss. Postoperatively, he presents with profound weakness in elbow flexion and decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of his forearm. Which nerve is most likely injured, and what is the most common mechanism during this procedure?

A 28-year-old elite volleyball player presents with vague posterior shoulder pain. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) reveals a paralabral cyst located strictly in the spinoglenoid notch. Which of the following physical examination findings is most specific to this pathology?

A 45-year-old male presents to the emergency department after a seizure. Radiographs confirm a locked posterior shoulder dislocation. A CT scan reveals an anteromedial humeral head impaction fracture (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 30% of the articular surface. The dislocation is successfully reduced, but the shoulder is highly unstable in internal rotation. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

A 24-year-old male undergoes arthroscopic stabilization for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Intraoperatively, the surgeon notes an 'engaging' Hill-Sachs lesion and elects to perform a Remplissage procedure in addition to a Bankart repair. The Remplissage procedure specifically involves tenodesis of which of the following structures into the humeral head defect?

A 42-year-old male presents with acute, unprovoked, agonizing pain in his right shoulder that lasted for 2 weeks before gradually subsiding. As the pain improved, he developed profound weakness in shoulder abduction and external rotation. Electromyography (EMG) shows acute denervation in the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and deltoid. What is the most appropriate initial treatment for this condition?

A 45-year-old volleyball player presents with painless weakness in shoulder external rotation. Abduction strength is completely normal. Physical examination reveals muscle atrophy localized exclusively to the infraspinatus fossa. Where is the most likely site of nerve compression?

A 70-year-old female presents with an acute anterior shoulder dislocation. After successful closed reduction, she demonstrates profound inability to actively abduct her shoulder against gravity, despite adequate analgesia. What is the most likely cause of this persistent deficit in this demographic?

A 65-year-old female is 3 years post-anatomic total shoulder arthroplasty (TSA). She presents with increasing pain, anterior swelling, and weakness in internal rotation. Radiographs show a well-fixed implant without loosening, but ultrasound confirms a massive subscapularis failure. Which of the following is the most appropriate salvage option if primary repair is impossible?

A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with insidious onset posterior shoulder pain and profound, isolated weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch. Which physical examination finding is most likely present?

A 22-year-old elite tennis player complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of his serve. Exam shows Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD). MRI arthrogram shows a 'peel-back' SLAP lesion and partial articular-sided supraspinatus tear (PASTA). What is the primary underlying pathophysiological mechanism for this internal impingement?

A 32-year-old volleyball player presents with insidious onset of posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. Exam reveals isolated infraspinatus atrophy with normal supraspinatus strength. MRI shows a paralabral cyst. Which specific labral tear is most commonly associated with this presentation?

A 24-year-old male with recurrent anterior shoulder instability undergoes preoperative evaluation. Advanced imaging demonstrates an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion with 10% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following surgical strategies is most appropriate?

A 45-year-old manual laborer presents with chronic anterior shoulder pain and a positive O'Brien's test. MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP tear. Given his age and occupation, what is the most appropriate surgical intervention to optimize outcomes and minimize postoperative stiffness?

A 32-year-old male experiences a seizure and sustains a locked posterior shoulder dislocation. A CT scan is obtained and demonstrates an anteromedial humeral head impaction fracture (reverse Hill-Sachs lesion) involving 30% of the articular surface. The joint is reduced, but remains unstable in internal rotation. What is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 20-year-old male undergoes arthroscopic stabilization for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. During the procedure, an anterior-inferior labral tear is identified along with an avulsed piece of the anterior-inferior glenoid rim. What is the eponymous name for this bony avulsion?

During arthroscopic repair of a Type II SLAP lesion, a suture anchor is placed at the 11 o'clock position in a right shoulder. Postoperatively, the patient complains of severe pain and weakness with external rotation. An EMG shows denervation of the infraspinatus with a normal supraspinatus. Which structure was most likely injured by errant drill or anchor placement?

When evaluating a patient with rotator cuff pathology, which of the following best describes a 'massive' rotator cuff tear according to the traditional Cofield classification?