Shoulder & Hip Sports MCQs

In a 65-year-old sedentary patient undergoing arthroscopic rotator cuff repair, a severely frayed and subluxated long head of the biceps tendon is noted. The surgeon decides to perform a biceps tenotomy rather than a tenodesis. Compared to tenodesis, which of the following is the most likely outcome of tenotomy?

A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. Physical examination reveals a glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD) of 25 degrees compared to the contralateral side. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of his internal impingement?

A 31-year-old elite volleyball player presents with insidious onset of right shoulder weakness. Physical examination reveals profound atrophy isolated to the infraspinatus fossa, with normal bulk of the supraspinatus. External rotation strength is significantly decreased, while abduction strength is preserved. What is the most likely anatomical location of the nerve compression?

A 55-year-old heavy laborer presents with a massive, retracted, and irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has significant weakness in external rotation and elevation. A latissimus dorsi tendon transfer is planned. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to this procedure?

A 21-year-old male undergoes diagnostic arthroscopy for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. The surgeon visualizes an anterior labral tear. The labrum is displaced medially and inferiorly on the glenoid neck, but the anterior scapular periosteum remains intact, forming a sleeve. What is the eponym for this specific lesion?

A 32-year-old male presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and numbness over the lateral deltoid after a blunt trauma to the posterior shoulder. An MRI reveals isolated atrophy of the teres minor muscle. Entrapment of the neurovascular bundle in the quadrilateral space is suspected. Which of the following structures forms the superior border of this space?

A 24-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and progressive weakness. On exam, she has full active forward elevation and normal internal rotation, but significant isolated weakness in external rotation. An MRI is obtained. What is the most likely pathological finding and its anatomical location?

A 21-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He has a 25-degree loss of internal rotation compared to his contralateral arm. Pathology in internal impingement syndrome typically involves contact between which two structures?

In the patient described above with glenohumeral internal rotation deficit (GIRD), what is the primary pathoanatomic cause, and what is the initial recommended treatment?

A 65-year-old male with a massive rotator cuff tear undergoes arthroscopic rotator cuff repair. A degenerative, symptomatic long head of the biceps tendon is noted, and the surgeon decides to perform a biceps tenotomy instead of a tenodesis. Compared to tenodesis, which of the following is true regarding biceps tenotomy?

A 55-year-old laborer complains of deep shoulder pain and clicking. MRI reveals an isolated Type II SLAP lesion. He has failed 6 months of conservative management. Based on recent literature, what is the most reliable surgical intervention for this patient to achieve pain relief and return to work?

A 42-year-old male presents to the emergency department locked in internal rotation after a severe seizure. Anteroposterior radiographs show a 'lightbulb' appearance of the humeral head. A CT scan reveals a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 35% of the articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

In the evaluation of anterior shoulder instability, the 'glenoid track' concept is utilized to determine the risk of an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. The normal width of the glenoid track is calculated as what percentage of the native inferior glenoid diameter (assuming no anterior bone loss)?

A 22-year-old rugby player undergoes evaluation for recurrent anterior shoulder instability. Advanced imaging and 3D reconstruction reveal an anterior inferior labral tear and a Hill-Sachs lesion that actively engages the anterior glenoid rim when the arm is placed in abduction and external rotation. The glenoid bone loss is calculated at 12%. Which of the following surgical procedures is most appropriate?

In the management of anterior shoulder instability with a concurrent osseous defect on the posterolateral humeral head (Hill-Sachs lesion), whether the lesion is "engaging" is best conceptualized and predicted using which of the following biomechanical paradigms?

In a patient with recurrent anterior shoulder instability, advanced 3D imaging reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. Which of the following is the most appropriate definitive surgical intervention?

A 65-year-old female presents with a 3-part proximal humerus fracture.

An axillary nerve injury is suspected. Which of the following muscles is primarily evaluated to assess the motor function of this nerve?

A 28-year-old volleyball player presents with insidious onset of shoulder pain and weakness.

Examination reveals weakness in external rotation but normal strength in abduction. Entrapment of the suprascapular nerve is suspected. At what anatomical site is the compression most likely occurring?

A 24-year-old athlete sustains recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. An MRI reveals a Hill-Sachs lesion. Advanced imaging and 3D modeling demonstrate that the lesion 'engages' the anterior glenoid rim when the arm is in abduction and external rotation. According to the glenoid track concept, how is this lesion classified?

During arthroscopic evaluation of the shoulder, a Type II SLAP tear is identified. The 'peel-back' mechanism is tested to assess the dynamic instability of the biceps anchor. This mechanism is maximally provoked in which shoulder position?