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Question 2321

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 60-year-old male undergoes arthroscopic rotator cuff repair.

To optimize tendon-to-bone healing, the surgeon decorticates the greater trochanter footprint. What is the primary histological mechanism of healing at the tendon-bone interface following this repair?

. Primary bone healing with direct remodeling
. Formation of a native four-zone transitional structure
. Fibrovascular scar tissue formation
. Direct regeneration of Sharpey's fibers without scar
. Intramembranous ossification of the distal tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Primary bone healing with direct remodeling


Explanation

Following surgical rotator cuff repair, the healing process does not reliably regenerate the native four-zone transitional anatomy (tendon, uncalcified fibrocartilage, calcified fibrocartilage, bone). Instead, it heals primarily by fibrovascular scar tissue formation, which is structurally and biomechanically weaker than the native insertion.

Question 2322

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old rugby player suffers recurrent anterior shoulder instability. 3D CT reconstruction demonstrates 12% anterior glenoid bone loss and a deep, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Isolated arthroscopic Bankart repair.
. Latarjet procedure with coracoid transfer.
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair combined with a Remplissage procedure.
. Open anterior capsular shift without osseous intervention.
. Iliac crest bone grafting to the anterior glenoid.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated arthroscopic Bankart repair.


Explanation

An engaging Hill-Sachs lesion combined with subcritical glenoid bone loss (<20-25%) is optimally managed with an arthroscopic Bankart repair and a Remplissage procedure. Remplissage prevents engagement by tenodesing the infraspinatus and posterior capsule into the Hill-Sachs defect.

Question 2323

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old semi-professional baseball pitcher presents with recurrent anterior glenohumeral instability despite dedicated rehabilitation. He has suffered 5 dislocations in the past 18 months. An axial CT scan reveals a glenoid bone loss of approximately 28% and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. The image provided shows a representative axial CT view of a shoulder with bone loss.

What is the most appropriate surgical management for this patient?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with Remplissage
. Open Bankart repair with suture anchors
. Latarjet procedure
. Thermal capsulorrhaphy and labral repair
. Non-operative management with continued physical therapy and activity modification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with Remplissage


Explanation

The Latarjet procedure is indicated for recurrent anterior glenohumeral instability in patients with significant glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%) or an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion, especially in high-demand athletes. This procedure addresses both the glenoid bone defect and the humeral head defect, providing a robust bony block to prevent recurrence. Arthroscopic or open Bankart repairs alone are insufficient for significant bone loss. Remplissage addresses the Hill-Sachs but doesn't restore glenoid bone. Thermal capsulorrhaphy is rarely used due to high failure rates and concerns for chondrolysis.

Question 2324

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old heavy laborer presents with an irreparable massive rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. The subscapularis and teres minor are intact, and he lacks active external rotation. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical option?

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
. Latissimus dorsi tendon transfer
. Pectoralis major tendon transfer
. Lower trapezius tendon transfer
. Arthroscopic superior capsule reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty


Explanation

Latissimus dorsi transfer is indicated for younger, active patients with irreparable posterosuperior cuff tears (supraspinatus and infraspinatus) and an intact subscapularis. Pectoralis major transfers are reserved for subscapularis tears, while reverse TSA is generally for older, lower-demand patients or those with arthropathy.

Question 2325

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 28-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain. On examination, he has full active abduction but marked weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch. Which muscle(s) will show denervation changes on EMG?

. Supraspinatus only
. Infraspinatus only
. Both supraspinatus and infraspinatus
. Teres minor only
. Deltoid and teres minor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Supraspinatus only


Explanation

The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch only affects the infraspinatus, leading to isolated external rotation weakness.

Question 2326

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 35-year-old male presents to the ER after a generalized seizure. His arm is locked in internal rotation and he cannot passively externally rotate past 0 degrees. An AP radiograph shows a symmetric, rounded humeral head ('lightbulb sign').

CT imaging is obtained. What specific osseous defect is most likely to be present on the humeral head?

. Posterosuperior defect (Hill-Sachs lesion)
. Anteroinferior glenoid fracture (Bony Bankart)
. Posterior glenoid rim fracture
. Anteromedial defect (Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion)
. Lesser tuberosity avulsion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterosuperior defect (Hill-Sachs lesion)


Explanation

Posterior shoulder dislocations are classically associated with a 'Reverse Hill-Sachs' lesion, which is an impaction fracture on the anteromedial aspect of the humeral head caused by the posterior glenoid rim.

Question 2327

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old heavy laborer presents with deep shoulder pain and mechanical catching. MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP tear. Given his age and occupational demands, current literature suggests which surgical intervention provides the most reliable return to work and pain relief?

. Debridement of the labrum only
. Anatomic arthroscopic SLAP repair with suture anchors
. Open capsular shift
. Biceps tenodesis
. Coracoid transfer (Latarjet)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Debridement of the labrum only


Explanation

Recent literature demonstrates that patients over the age of 40, especially laborers, have higher complication rates and stiffness with SLAP repairs. Biceps tenodesis provides superior, reliable outcomes in this demographic.

Question 2328

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 22-year-old football player sustains recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Preoperative imaging

reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention to minimize recurrence?

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
. Latarjet procedure
. Remplissage procedure
. Arthroscopic capsular shift
. Putti-Platt procedure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic Bankart repair


Explanation

In patients with significant anterior glenoid bone loss (>20-25%), isolated soft-tissue procedures (like arthroscopic Bankart repair) have unacceptably high failure rates. The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) addresses the bony defect and provides a sling effect via the conjoint tendon to stabilize the shoulder anteriorly.

Question 2329

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 30-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with preserved supraspinatus bulk. Where is the most likely site of nerve compression?

. Suprascapular notch
. Spinoglenoid notch
. Quadrilateral space
. Triangular space
. Spinal groove

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Suprascapular notch


Explanation

Isolated infraspinatus weakness and atrophy points to compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch, frequently caused by ganglion cysts in overhead athletes. Compression more proximally at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 2330

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 45-year-old male presents to the ED after a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. His shoulder is locked in internal rotation and he is unable to externally rotate. Radiographs show a 'lightbulb' sign. Which of the following associated injuries is most frequently seen in this condition?

. Bankart lesion
. Hill-Sachs lesion
. Reverse Hill-Sachs lesion
. Greater tuberosity fracture
. Coracoid fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bankart lesion


Explanation

The patient has a posterior shoulder dislocation, commonly caused by seizures or electrical shocks due to the powerful internal rotators overpowering the external rotators. The 'lightbulb' sign on AP radiograph is classic. The most common associated injury is an impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head, known as a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion.

Question 2331

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old laborer has a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has an intact subscapularis and a negative hornblower's sign. He struggles primarily with loss of active external rotation and elevation. Which tendon transfer is most historically validated and appropriate for this specific deficit pattern?

. Pectoralis major transfer
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Lower trapezius transfer
. Pectoralis minor transfer
. Levator scapulae transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis major transfer


Explanation

The latissimus dorsi tendon transfer is traditionally indicated for irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears (supraspinatus and infraspinatus) in younger, active patients with an intact subscapularis and functioning deltoid. It helps restore external rotation and forward flexion.

Question 2332

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He exhibits a GIRD (glenohumeral internal rotation deficit) of 25 degrees. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism of his shoulder pain?

. Subacromial bursitis compressing the supraspinatus
. Contact between the undersurface of the rotator cuff and the posterosuperior glenoid labrum
. Anterior subcoracoid impingement
. SLAP II tear causing biceps anchor instability
. Suprascapular nerve entrapment at the spinoglenoid notch

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Subacromial bursitis compressing the supraspinatus


Explanation

Internal impingement typically occurs in overhead athletes during extreme external rotation and abduction (late cocking phase). The articular undersurface of the supraspinatus/infraspinatus tendons is dynamically pinched or impinged against the posterosuperior glenoid rim and labrum.

Question 2333

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old male sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. Post-reduction, he has numbness over the lateral aspect of his shoulder and inability to actively abduct his arm. An EMG performed at 3 weeks shows fibrillation potentials in the deltoid. What is the most appropriate management?

. Immediate exploration and sural nerve grafting
. Nerve transfer (e.g., Somsak procedure) immediately
. Observation and physical therapy with repeat clinical exams
. Primary end-to-end repair of the axillary nerve
. Latarjet procedure to stabilize the capsule

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate exploration and sural nerve grafting


Explanation

Axillary nerve neurapraxia or axonotmesis is common after anterior shoulder dislocations, particularly in older patients. Most recover spontaneously. An EMG at 3 weeks showing fibrillations confirms denervation, but clinical recovery can still occur over 3-6 months. Observation and physical therapy to maintain ROM is the initial step; surgical exploration is reserved for failure to improve clinically or electrically by 3-6 months.

Question 2334

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old male presents with severe, acute-onset right shoulder pain that lasted for two weeks, awakened him from sleep, and has now transitioned into profound weakness of shoulder abduction and external rotation. He reports a recent viral respiratory illness. MRI of the shoulder is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Acute massive rotator cuff tear
. Cervical radiculopathy (C5-C6)
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome (neuralgic amyotrophy)
. Quadrilateral space syndrome
. Suprascapular nerve entrapment by a spinoglenoid cyst

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acute massive rotator cuff tear


Explanation

Parsonage-Turner syndrome (idiopathic brachial neuritis) classically presents with acute, severe shoulder pain that awakens the patient at night. As the pain subsides over days to weeks, patients develop patchy weakness and atrophy (commonly affecting the upper trunk: deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus). It is often preceded by a viral illness or vaccination. The lack of MRI findings rules out acute structural tears.

Question 2335

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 31-year-old male volleyball player presents with insidious onset of right shoulder weakness. Physical exam reveals notable atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa but normal bulk of the supraspinatus. External rotation strength is significantly decreased, while abduction strength is preserved. What is the most likely etiology of this patient's condition?

. A ganglion cyst at the suprascapular notch
. A ganglion cyst at the spinoglenoid notch
. Anterior shoulder instability causing axillary nerve stretch
. Traction injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus
. Parsonage-Turner syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A ganglion cyst at the suprascapular notch


Explanation

Isolated infraspinatus atrophy and weakness point to compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch. At this location, the nerve has already given off its motor branch to the supraspinatus, so supraspinatus function (abduction) remains intact. This is frequently caused by a ganglion cyst associated with a posterior labral tear. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.

Question 2336

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

The Latarjet procedure involves transfer of the coracoid process to the anterior glenoid neck. During the approach, the subscapularis muscle is often split longitudinally. Which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury if this split is extended too far medially?

. Axillary nerve
. Musculocutaneous nerve
. Suprascapular nerve
. Radial nerve
. Spinal accessory nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Axillary nerve


Explanation

During the subscapularis split for a Latarjet or anterior stabilization procedure, the axillary nerve is at risk if the split is extended too far medially. The axillary nerve courses inferior to the capsule and crosses the anterior subscapularis muscle belly medially before entering the quadrilateral space. The musculocutaneous nerve is also at risk during a Latarjet, but primarily during coracoid preparation and retraction of the conjoint tendon.

Question 2337

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 55-year-old male presents with a massive, irreparable tear of the subscapularis tendon following a failed repair. He complains of debilitating anterior pain, has a positive belly-press test, and increased passive external rotation. Which tendon transfer is most appropriate to restore anterior shoulder function?

. Latissimus dorsi
. Lower trapezius
. Pectoralis major
. Teres major
. Biceps brachii

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Latissimus dorsi


Explanation

The pectoralis major transfer is the most commonly utilized and reliable tendon transfer for massive, irreparable subscapularis tears to restore internal rotation and anterior stability. In contrast, latissimus dorsi and lower trapezius transfers are indicated for irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears (supraspinatus and infraspinatus).

Question 2338

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 48-year-old manual laborer has a massive, retracted, and fatty-infiltrated tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. He lacks active external rotation and has a positive external rotation lag sign, but has intact subscapularis function and no significant glenohumeral arthritis. Which tendon transfer is most indicated for this patient?

. Pectoralis major transfer
. Latissimus dorsi transfer
. Pectoralis minor transfer
. Coracobrachialis transfer
. Triceps transfer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pectoralis major transfer


Explanation

A latissimus dorsi (or lower trapezius) tendon transfer is indicated for a young, active patient with an irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear resulting in deficient external rotation and elevation, provided there is no significant glenohumeral arthritis. An intact subscapularis is essential for a successful latissimus dorsi transfer to balance the force couples.

Question 2339

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 65-year-old female sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. After successful closed reduction in the emergency department, post-reduction radiographs reveal a concentric glenohumeral joint but a displaced greater tuberosity fracture with 7 mm of superior displacement. What is the most appropriate management?

. Sling immobilization for 2 weeks followed by physical therapy
. Surgical fixation of the greater tuberosity
. Figure-of-eight brace
. Open Bankart repair
. Total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sling immobilization for 2 weeks followed by physical therapy


Explanation

In the setting of an anterior shoulder dislocation with an associated greater tuberosity fracture, conservative management is typically acceptable if the tuberosity fragment is displaced < 5 mm after reduction. Displacement > 5 mm, especially superior displacement, increases the risk of subacromial impingement and rotator cuff dysfunction, warranting surgical fixation (ORIF or arthroscopic repair).

Question 2340

Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports

A 40-year-old male presents to the ER after a generalized seizure. He holds his right arm firmly in internal rotation and adduction. Radiographs confirm a posterior glenohumeral dislocation. After closed reduction, a CT scan shows a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 25% of the humeral head articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic posterior Bankart repair alone
. Transfer of the lesser tuberosity into the defect (Modified McLaughlin procedure)
. Open reduction and internal fixation of the defect with headless screws
. Total shoulder arthroplasty
. Hemiarthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic posterior Bankart repair alone


Explanation

A reverse Hill-Sachs lesion is an anteromedial impaction fracture of the humeral head resulting from a posterior dislocation. For defects involving 20-40% of the articular surface, transferring the subscapularis tendon (McLaughlin procedure) or the lesser tuberosity with the attached subscapularis (Modified McLaughlin procedure) into the defect is the treatment of choice. This prevents the defect from engaging the posterior glenoid and prevents recurrent instability.