This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Shoulder & Hip Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 2321
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 60-year-old male undergoes arthroscopic rotator cuff repair.
To optimize tendon-to-bone healing, the surgeon decorticates the greater trochanter footprint. What is the primary histological mechanism of healing at the tendon-bone interface following this repair?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Primary bone healing with direct remodeling
Explanation
Following surgical rotator cuff repair, the healing process does not reliably regenerate the native four-zone transitional anatomy (tendon, uncalcified fibrocartilage, calcified fibrocartilage, bone). Instead, it heals primarily by fibrovascular scar tissue formation, which is structurally and biomechanically weaker than the native insertion.
Question 2322
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old rugby player suffers recurrent anterior shoulder instability. 3D CT reconstruction demonstrates 12% anterior glenoid bone loss and a deep, engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated arthroscopic Bankart repair.
Explanation
An engaging Hill-Sachs lesion combined with subcritical glenoid bone loss (<20-25%) is optimally managed with an arthroscopic Bankart repair and a Remplissage procedure. Remplissage prevents engagement by tenodesing the infraspinatus and posterior capsule into the Hill-Sachs defect.
Question 2323
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old semi-professional baseball pitcher presents with recurrent anterior glenohumeral instability despite dedicated rehabilitation. He has suffered 5 dislocations in the past 18 months. An axial CT scan reveals a glenoid bone loss of approximately 28% and an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion. The image provided shows a representative axial CT view of a shoulder with bone loss.
What is the most appropriate surgical management for this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair with Remplissage
Explanation
The Latarjet procedure is indicated for recurrent anterior glenohumeral instability in patients with significant glenoid bone loss (typically >20-25%) or an engaging Hill-Sachs lesion, especially in high-demand athletes. This procedure addresses both the glenoid bone defect and the humeral head defect, providing a robust bony block to prevent recurrence. Arthroscopic or open Bankart repairs alone are insufficient for significant bone loss. Remplissage addresses the Hill-Sachs but doesn't restore glenoid bone. Thermal capsulorrhaphy is rarely used due to high failure rates and concerns for chondrolysis.
Question 2324
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 45-year-old heavy laborer presents with an irreparable massive rotator cuff tear involving the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. The subscapularis and teres minor are intact, and he lacks active external rotation. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical option?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty
Explanation
Latissimus dorsi transfer is indicated for younger, active patients with irreparable posterosuperior cuff tears (supraspinatus and infraspinatus) and an intact subscapularis. Pectoralis major transfers are reserved for subscapularis tears, while reverse TSA is generally for older, lower-demand patients or those with arthropathy.
Question 2325
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain. On examination, he has full active abduction but marked weakness in external rotation. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst at the spinoglenoid notch. Which muscle(s) will show denervation changes on EMG?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supraspinatus only
Explanation
The suprascapular nerve innervates the supraspinatus before passing through the spinoglenoid notch. Compression at the spinoglenoid notch only affects the infraspinatus, leading to isolated external rotation weakness.
Question 2326
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 35-year-old male presents to the ER after a generalized seizure. His arm is locked in internal rotation and he cannot passively externally rotate past 0 degrees. An AP radiograph shows a symmetric, rounded humeral head ('lightbulb sign').
CT imaging is obtained. What specific osseous defect is most likely to be present on the humeral head?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterosuperior defect (Hill-Sachs lesion)
Explanation
Posterior shoulder dislocations are classically associated with a 'Reverse Hill-Sachs' lesion, which is an impaction fracture on the anteromedial aspect of the humeral head caused by the posterior glenoid rim.
Question 2327
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 45-year-old heavy laborer presents with deep shoulder pain and mechanical catching. MRI arthrogram reveals a Type II SLAP tear. Given his age and occupational demands, current literature suggests which surgical intervention provides the most reliable return to work and pain relief?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Debridement of the labrum only
Explanation
Recent literature demonstrates that patients over the age of 40, especially laborers, have higher complication rates and stiffness with SLAP repairs. Biceps tenodesis provides superior, reliable outcomes in this demographic.
Question 2328
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old football player sustains recurrent anterior shoulder dislocations. Preoperative imaging
reveals 25% anterior glenoid bone loss. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention to minimize recurrence?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic Bankart repair
Explanation
In patients with significant anterior glenoid bone loss (>20-25%), isolated soft-tissue procedures (like arthroscopic Bankart repair) have unacceptably high failure rates. The Latarjet procedure (coracoid transfer) addresses the bony defect and provides a sling effect via the conjoint tendon to stabilize the shoulder anteriorly.
Question 2329
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 30-year-old elite volleyball player complains of vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus with preserved supraspinatus bulk. Where is the most likely site of nerve compression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Suprascapular notch
Explanation
Isolated infraspinatus weakness and atrophy points to compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch, frequently caused by ganglion cysts in overhead athletes. Compression more proximally at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.
Question 2330
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 45-year-old male presents to the ED after a generalized tonic-clonic seizure. His shoulder is locked in internal rotation and he is unable to externally rotate. Radiographs show a 'lightbulb' sign. Which of the following associated injuries is most frequently seen in this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Bankart lesion
Explanation
The patient has a posterior shoulder dislocation, commonly caused by seizures or electrical shocks due to the powerful internal rotators overpowering the external rotators. The 'lightbulb' sign on AP radiograph is classic. The most common associated injury is an impaction fracture of the anteromedial humeral head, known as a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion.
Question 2331
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old laborer has a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear. He has an intact subscapularis and a negative hornblower's sign. He struggles primarily with loss of active external rotation and elevation. Which tendon transfer is most historically validated and appropriate for this specific deficit pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pectoralis major transfer
Explanation
The latissimus dorsi tendon transfer is traditionally indicated for irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears (supraspinatus and infraspinatus) in younger, active patients with an intact subscapularis and functioning deltoid. It helps restore external rotation and forward flexion.
Question 2332
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 24-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He exhibits a GIRD (glenohumeral internal rotation deficit) of 25 degrees. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism of his shoulder pain?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Subacromial bursitis compressing the supraspinatus
Explanation
Internal impingement typically occurs in overhead athletes during extreme external rotation and abduction (late cocking phase). The articular undersurface of the supraspinatus/infraspinatus tendons is dynamically pinched or impinged against the posterosuperior glenoid rim and labrum.
Question 2333
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old male sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. Post-reduction, he has numbness over the lateral aspect of his shoulder and inability to actively abduct his arm. An EMG performed at 3 weeks shows fibrillation potentials in the deltoid. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate exploration and sural nerve grafting
Explanation
Axillary nerve neurapraxia or axonotmesis is common after anterior shoulder dislocations, particularly in older patients. Most recover spontaneously. An EMG at 3 weeks showing fibrillations confirms denervation, but clinical recovery can still occur over 3-6 months. Observation and physical therapy to maintain ROM is the initial step; surgical exploration is reserved for failure to improve clinically or electrically by 3-6 months.
Question 2334
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 40-year-old male presents with severe, acute-onset right shoulder pain that lasted for two weeks, awakened him from sleep, and has now transitioned into profound weakness of shoulder abduction and external rotation. He reports a recent viral respiratory illness. MRI of the shoulder is unremarkable. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Acute massive rotator cuff tear
Explanation
Parsonage-Turner syndrome (idiopathic brachial neuritis) classically presents with acute, severe shoulder pain that awakens the patient at night. As the pain subsides over days to weeks, patients develop patchy weakness and atrophy (commonly affecting the upper trunk: deltoid, supraspinatus, infraspinatus). It is often preceded by a viral illness or vaccination. The lack of MRI findings rules out acute structural tears.
Question 2335
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 31-year-old male volleyball player presents with insidious onset of right shoulder weakness. Physical exam reveals notable atrophy of the infraspinatus fossa but normal bulk of the supraspinatus. External rotation strength is significantly decreased, while abduction strength is preserved. What is the most likely etiology of this patient's condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. A ganglion cyst at the suprascapular notch
Explanation
Isolated infraspinatus atrophy and weakness point to compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch. At this location, the nerve has already given off its motor branch to the supraspinatus, so supraspinatus function (abduction) remains intact. This is frequently caused by a ganglion cyst associated with a posterior labral tear. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.
Question 2336
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
The Latarjet procedure involves transfer of the coracoid process to the anterior glenoid neck. During the approach, the subscapularis muscle is often split longitudinally. Which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury if this split is extended too far medially?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axillary nerve
Explanation
During the subscapularis split for a Latarjet or anterior stabilization procedure, the axillary nerve is at risk if the split is extended too far medially. The axillary nerve courses inferior to the capsule and crosses the anterior subscapularis muscle belly medially before entering the quadrilateral space. The musculocutaneous nerve is also at risk during a Latarjet, but primarily during coracoid preparation and retraction of the conjoint tendon.
Question 2337
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 55-year-old male presents with a massive, irreparable tear of the subscapularis tendon following a failed repair. He complains of debilitating anterior pain, has a positive belly-press test, and increased passive external rotation. Which tendon transfer is most appropriate to restore anterior shoulder function?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Latissimus dorsi
Explanation
The pectoralis major transfer is the most commonly utilized and reliable tendon transfer for massive, irreparable subscapularis tears to restore internal rotation and anterior stability. In contrast, latissimus dorsi and lower trapezius transfers are indicated for irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tears (supraspinatus and infraspinatus).
Question 2338
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 48-year-old manual laborer has a massive, retracted, and fatty-infiltrated tear of the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. He lacks active external rotation and has a positive external rotation lag sign, but has intact subscapularis function and no significant glenohumeral arthritis. Which tendon transfer is most indicated for this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pectoralis major transfer
Explanation
A latissimus dorsi (or lower trapezius) tendon transfer is indicated for a young, active patient with an irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear resulting in deficient external rotation and elevation, provided there is no significant glenohumeral arthritis. An intact subscapularis is essential for a successful latissimus dorsi transfer to balance the force couples.
Question 2339
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 65-year-old female sustains an anterior shoulder dislocation. After successful closed reduction in the emergency department, post-reduction radiographs reveal a concentric glenohumeral joint but a displaced greater tuberosity fracture with 7 mm of superior displacement. What is the most appropriate management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Sling immobilization for 2 weeks followed by physical therapy
Explanation
In the setting of an anterior shoulder dislocation with an associated greater tuberosity fracture, conservative management is typically acceptable if the tuberosity fragment is displaced < 5 mm after reduction. Displacement > 5 mm, especially superior displacement, increases the risk of subacromial impingement and rotator cuff dysfunction, warranting surgical fixation (ORIF or arthroscopic repair).
Question 2340
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 40-year-old male presents to the ER after a generalized seizure. He holds his right arm firmly in internal rotation and adduction. Radiographs confirm a posterior glenohumeral dislocation. After closed reduction, a CT scan shows a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion involving 25% of the humeral head articular surface. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic posterior Bankart repair alone
Explanation
A reverse Hill-Sachs lesion is an anteromedial impaction fracture of the humeral head resulting from a posterior dislocation. For defects involving 20-40% of the articular surface, transferring the subscapularis tendon (McLaughlin procedure) or the lesser tuberosity with the attached subscapularis (Modified McLaughlin procedure) into the defect is the treatment of choice. This prevents the defect from engaging the posterior glenoid and prevents recurrent instability.
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