This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Shoulder & Hip Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 2301
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During a posterior approach to the shoulder (Judson approach) for the treatment of a posterior glenoid fracture, the surgeon develops the primary internervous plane. Which of the following defines the muscles and their respective innervations that form this boundary?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Supraspinatus (Suprascapular n.) and Infraspinatus (Suprascapular n.)
Explanation
The classic posterior approach to the shoulder utilizes the internervous plane between the infraspinatus (innervated by the suprascapular nerve) and the teres minor (innervated by the axillary nerve). Retracting the infraspinatus superiorly and the teres minor inferiorly provides excellent access to the posterior shoulder joint capsule while respecting distinct nerve supplies.
Question 2302
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
The subscapularis muscle is unique among the rotator cuff muscles due to its dual innervation. Which of the following nerves provides innervation to the inferior portion of the subscapularis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Suprascapular nerve
Explanation
The subscapularis is innervated by both the upper and lower subscapular nerves. The upper subscapular nerve innervates the superior portion, while the lower subscapular nerve innervates the inferior portion. The lower subscapular nerve also innervates the teres major.
Question 2303
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 25-year-old male is undergoing an open Latarjet procedure. During the approach, the surgeon must identify and protect the musculocutaneous nerve. What is the classic anatomic relationship of the musculocutaneous nerve to the coracoid process?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It enters the coracobrachialis muscle 1 to 2 cm distal to the coracoid process.
Explanation
The musculocutaneous nerve typically enters the deep surface of the coracobrachialis muscle approximately 5 to 8 cm distal to the tip of the coracoid process. Retraction of the conjoined tendon medial to this point during anterior shoulder approaches places the nerve at significant risk.
Question 2304
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 25-year-old male sustains a posterior shoulder dislocation resulting in isolated weakness in external rotation and a sensory deficit over the lateral deltoid. Which of the following defines the borders of the anatomic space through which the injured nerve passes?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior: Teres minor, Inferior: Teres major, Medial: Long head of triceps, Lateral: Surgical neck of humerus
Explanation
The axillary nerve passes through the quadrilateral space. Its borders are the teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of the triceps (medial), and surgical neck of the humerus (lateral).
Question 2305
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
During a Latarjet procedure for recurrent anterior shoulder instability with significant glenoid bone loss, the coracoid process is transferred to the anterior glenoid.
Which nerve is at greatest risk of iatrogenic injury during the medial retraction of the conjoined tendon and subsequent screw fixation?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axillary nerve
Explanation
The musculocutaneous nerve typically enters the coracobrachialis muscle 3-8 cm distal to the tip of the coracoid. Retraction of the conjoined tendon medially during the Latarjet procedure places significant traction on this nerve, making it the most commonly injured neurologic structure during this operation.
Question 2306
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old hockey player presents with anterior groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion and internal rotation. Imaging reveals Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI).
During hip arthroscopy, which of the following intra-articular pathologic findings is most commonly associated with isolated Cam impingement?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Global pincer-type labral ossification
Explanation
Cam impingement is caused by an aspherical femoral head-neck junction creating sheer forces on the anterosuperior acetabular rim during flexion and internal rotation. This reliably leads to chondral delamination (the 'wave sign') and tearing of the labrum at the chondrolabral junction in the anterosuperior quadrant.
Question 2307
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 35-year-old overhead athlete presents with posterior shoulder pain and profound weakness in external rotation. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst in the spinoglenoid notch.
Which physical exam finding and associated intra-articular pathology is most likely present?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Weakness in internal rotation; anterior labral tear
Explanation
A cyst at the spinoglenoid notch typically compresses the suprascapular nerve after it has innervated the supraspinatus, leading to isolated infraspinatus denervation and isolated external rotation weakness. Spinoglenoid cysts are highly associated with posterior labral tears, through which synovial fluid escapes via a one-way valve mechanism.
Question 2308
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 65-year-old manual laborer presents with a massive, irreparable posterosuperior rotator cuff tear (supraspinatus and infraspinatus) with an intact subscapularis and functional deltoid. He lacks active external rotation (positive hornblower's sign). Which tendon transfer is most biomechanically appropriate to restore external rotation in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Pectoralis major transfer
Explanation
For irreparable posterosuperior cuff tears with profound external rotation weakness, the lower trapezius transfer has a line of pull that closely replicates the native infraspinatus and allows for in-phase firing, making it biomechanically superior for restoring active external rotation. The latissimus dorsi is an internal rotator and requires out-of-phase retraining.
Question 2309
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 60-year-old female presents with lateral hip pain that radiates down her lateral thigh. She reports pain when rising from a seated position and lying on the affected side. On exam, she has a positive Trendelenburg sign and weakness in hip abduction. Trochanteric bursitis treatments have failed. MRI reveals a full-thickness tear of the gluteus medius tendon. At which anatomic footprint does this tendon most commonly tear?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior facet of the greater trochanter
Explanation
The gluteus medius inserts primarily on the lateral and superoposterior facets of the greater trochanter. Tears of the 'rotator cuff of the hip' most commonly involve the gluteus medius at the lateral facet of the greater trochanter. The gluteus minimus inserts on the anterior facet.
Question 2310
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain. On exam, he has a 25-degree deficit in glenohumeral internal rotation (GIRD) compared to his non-throwing arm, but total arc of motion is equal bilaterally. When his shoulder is placed in 90 degrees of abduction and maximal external rotation, he complains of deep posterior pain. What is the classic pathoanatomic finding on arthroscopy for 'Internal Impingement' in this population?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Impingement of the anterior supraspinatus against the coracoacromial arch
Explanation
Internal impingement classically occurs in overhead athletes during the late cocking phase of throwing (abduction/external rotation). It involves the pathological contact (impingement) of the articular-sided fibers of the posterosuperior rotator cuff (supraspinatus and infraspinatus) against the posterosuperior glenoid labrum, often exacerbated by posterior capsular contracture (GIRD) and anterior capsular laxity.
Question 2311
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 34-year-old recreational weightlifter presents with severe shoulder pain and inability to actively internally rotate the shoulder after a forceful extension injury. On exam, he has increased passive external rotation compared to the normal side and a positive 'lift-off' test. An MRI confirms an isolated subscapularis tendon rupture. Which accompanying pathology is most frequently associated with a complete rupture of the upper subscapularis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medial dislocation of the long head of the biceps tendon
Explanation
The upper fibers of the subscapularis provide the medial stabilizing sling for the long head of the biceps tendon at the bicipital groove. A tear of the upper subscapularis often disrupts this transverse humeral ligament/medial sling complex, leading to medial subluxation or frank dislocation of the long head of the biceps tendon into the joint.
Question 2312
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 29-year-old professional volleyball player complains of isolated, painless weakness of the throwing arm. On physical examination, she demonstrates marked weakness in active external rotation with the arm at the side, but normal internal rotation, normal abduction, and no sensory deficits. An MRI is performed. What is the most likely pathological finding?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Paralabral cyst in the suprascapular notch
Explanation
Isolated weakness of the infraspinatus (external rotation) without supraspinatus involvement (abduction) suggests compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch. This is classically caused by a paralabral cyst associated with a posterior labral tear in overhead athletes. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus.
Question 2313
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 19-year-old dancer presents with a painful snapping sensation in her anterior hip when extending her hip from a flexed, abducted, and externally rotated position. An ultrasound demonstrates the iliopsoas tendon snapping over a bony prominence. What is the most common anatomic structure over which the iliopsoas snaps in 'Internal Snapping Hip' (Coxa Saltans Interna)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Greater trochanter
Explanation
Internal snapping hip (coxa saltans interna) is caused by the iliopsoas tendon catching or snapping over the iliopectineal eminence or the anterior capsule/femoral head. External snapping hip involves the iliotibial (IT) band snapping over the greater trochanter.
Question 2314
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old professional baseball pitcher presents with posterior shoulder pain. Physical examination demonstrates Glenohumeral Internal Rotation Deficit (GIRD) with internal rotation decreased by 25 degrees and the total arc of motion decreased by 15 degrees compared to the non-throwing shoulder. What is the primary pathophysiological driver of this true pathologic GIRD?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior capsular redundancy
Explanation
In overhead throwing athletes, a loss of internal rotation (GIRD) is common. Physiologic GIRD is characterized by a loss of internal rotation matched by an equal gain in external rotation, resulting in a symmetric total arc of motion; this is primarily due to osseous adaptation (humeral retrotorsion). However, 'pathologic GIRD' is defined by a loss of internal rotation that exceeds the gain in external rotation, resulting in a decreased total arc of motion (>5 degrees difference). This pathologic state is primarily driven by posterior capsular contracture due to repetitive eccentric loading during the deceleration phase of throwing.
Question 2315
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 25-year-old hockey player presents with chronic groin pain exacerbated by hip flexion, adduction, and internal rotation. Radiographs reveal an alpha angle of 65 degrees. He is diagnosed with Femoroacetabular Impingement (FAI) and undergoes hip arthroscopy for cam lesion resection. A cam lesion most commonly occurs at which location on the proximal femur?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterolateral head-neck junction
Explanation
Cam-type femoroacetabular impingement (FAI) is caused by an aspherical femoral head or a decreased head-neck offset, leading to abutment against the acetabular rim. This prominent bone (cam lesion) most commonly forms at the anterolateral head-neck junction. An alpha angle > 55 degrees on a modified Dunn or frog-leg lateral radiograph is diagnostic of a cam lesion.
Question 2316
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 50-year-old female marathon runner complains of recalcitrant lateral hip pain. Physical examination demonstrates a positive Trendelenburg sign. MRI confirms a full-thickness tear of the gluteus medius tendon. During an open repair, the surgeon isolates the primary footprint of the gluteus medius. This tendon inserts onto which specific facet(s) of the greater trochanter?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior facet only
Explanation
The gluteus medius, often referred to as the 'rotator cuff of the hip,' has a broad insertion on the greater trochanter. Its primary footprint is located on the lateral and superoposterior facets of the greater trochanter. The gluteus minimus inserts more anteriorly on the anterior facet. The gluteus maximus inserts on the gluteal tuberosity of the femur and the iliotibial band.
Question 2317
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 19-year-old ballet dancer complains of a painful popping sensation deep in her anterior hip when she extends her hip from a flexed, abducted, and externally rotated position. Dynamic ultrasound confirms internal coxa saltans. Which anatomical structures are mechanically interacting to cause this snapping?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Iliotibial band translating over the greater trochanter
Explanation
Internal snapping hip (internal coxa saltans) is caused by the iliopsoas tendon snapping over the iliopectineal eminence or the femoral head, typically when the hip is moved from a flexed, abducted, externally rotated position into extension and internal rotation. External snapping hip involves the iliotibial band or gluteus maximus snapping over the greater trochanter.
Question 2318
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 22-year-old collegiate baseball pitcher complains of posterior shoulder pain during the late cocking phase of throwing. He exhibits increased external rotation and decreased internal rotation (GIRD) compared to the contralateral side. What is the primary pathophysiologic mechanism of this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Impingement of the supraspinatus against the coracoacromial arch
Explanation
This patient has internal impingement, common in overhead athletes. It occurs during extreme abduction and external rotation (late cocking phase), leading to pathologic contact between the articular surface of the posterior rotator cuff (supraspinatus/infraspinatus) and the posterosuperior glenoid and labrum.
Question 2319
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 35-year-old weightlifter feels a "pop" in his anterior shoulder during a heavy bench press. He now has increased passive external rotation and profound weakness in internal rotation. He tests positive on the bear hug test. Which of the following associated injuries is most likely present given this pathology?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Biceps pulley lesion with medial subluxation of the long head of the biceps
Explanation
Acute subscapularis tears, particularly traumatic ruptures in younger patients, are highly associated with damage to the biceps pulley (superior glenohumeral ligament and coracohumeral ligament). This leads to medial subluxation or dislocation of the long head of the biceps tendon out of the bicipital groove.
Question 2320
Topic: Shoulder & Hip Sports
A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and weakness in external rotation. Examination reveals isolated atrophy of the infraspinatus muscle.
Where is the most likely site of neural compression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Suprascapular notch
Explanation
The suprascapular nerve innervates both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus. Compression at the suprascapular notch affects both muscles. Compression further distal at the spinoglenoid notch (often due to a paralabral cyst associated with a posterior labral tear) selectively denervates the infraspinatus, sparing the supraspinatus.
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