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Question 1221

Topic: Knee Sports

A 21-year-old athlete undergoes revision ACL reconstruction. Preoperative CT scan shows an expanded tibial tunnel measuring 16 mm in diameter. What is the preferred surgical strategy in this setting?

. Bone grafting of the tunnel and delay revision for 4-6 months
. Immediate revision using an oversized interference screw
. Immediate revision using a bone-patellar tendon-bone graft
. Injection of calcium phosphate cement during single-stage revision
. Use of a cortical suspensory button without bone grafting

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bone grafting of the tunnel and delay revision for 4-6 months


Explanation

When significant tunnel widening is present (>14 mm), a two-stage revision strategy is recommended. The first stage involves filling the dilated tunnel with bone graft, followed by the definitive ACL reconstruction 4 to 6 months later once the graft has incorporated.

Question 1222

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old man presents with knee pain after a twisting injury. Physical examination reveals an asymmetric increased external rotation of the tibia of 15 degrees at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but no difference compared to the contralateral knee at 90 degrees of flexion. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) alone
. Posterolateral corner (PLC) alone
. Combined PCL and PLC
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) alone


Explanation

The dial test evaluates the PCL and PLC. Greater than 10 degrees of asymmetric external rotation at 30 degrees but symmetric at 90 degrees indicates an isolated PLC injury. Asymmetry at both 30 and 90 degrees indicates a combined PLC and PCL injury.

Question 1223

Topic: Knee Sports

During an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, the surgeon evaluates the anatomy of the native ACL footprint. Which of the following statements correctly describes the biomechanics of the two main bundles of the ACL?

. Both bundles are maximally tight at 45 degrees of flexion
. The anteromedial bundle is tight in flexion and the posterolateral bundle is tight in extension
. The anteromedial bundle is tight in extension and the posterolateral bundle is tight in flexion
. Both bundles are equally tight in extension
. The anteromedial bundle provides primarily rotatory stability

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Both bundles are maximally tight at 45 degrees of flexion


Explanation

The ACL consists of the anteromedial (AM) and posterolateral (PL) bundles. The AM bundle tightens in flexion to resist anterior tibial translation, while the PL bundle tightens in extension and is the primary restraint to rotatory loads.

Question 1224

Topic: Knee Sports

A 28-year-old dashboard-injury victim presents with a positive posterior drawer test and a posterior sag sign. MRI confirms an isolated Grade II posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Immediate PCL reconstruction
. Primary repair of the PCL
. Immobilization in a cylinder cast in full flexion for 6 weeks
. Physical therapy and bracing in extension
. Arthroscopic debridement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate PCL reconstruction


Explanation

Isolated Grade I and II PCL tears have a high intrinsic healing capacity. They are best managed nonoperatively with relative immobilization in extension (to prevent posterior tibial sag) and physical therapy focusing on quadriceps strengthening.

Question 1225

Topic: Knee Sports

An 8-year-old girl (Tanner stage 1) sustains a midsubstance anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. She experiences recurrent instability despite bracing and physical therapy. What is the most appropriate surgical technique to minimize the risk of physeal growth arrest?

. Transphyseal bone-patellar tendon-bone reconstruction
. Transphyseal hamstring reconstruction
. Primary repair with synthetic augmentation
. All-epiphyseal ACL reconstruction
. Over-the-top extra-articular tenodesis alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transphyseal bone-patellar tendon-bone reconstruction


Explanation

In prepubescent children with significant remaining growth (Tanner stage 1 or 2), physeal-sparing techniques like an all-epiphyseal reconstruction or extra-articular ITB tenodesis are recommended. Transphyseal drilling, especially with bone blocks, carries an unacceptably high risk of growth arrest.

Question 1226

Topic: Knee Sports

A 26-year-old rugby player sustains a direct blow to the proximal tibia with the knee flexed at 90 degrees. Examination demonstrates a posterior sag sign and 8 mm of posterior translation of the tibia on the femur at 90 degrees of flexion, but normal translation at 30 degrees. The dial test is negative. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Immediate surgical reconstruction of the PCL
. Primary repair of the torn ligament
. Nonoperative management with early rehabilitation emphasizing quadriceps strengthening
. Cylinder cast immobilization in full extension for 6 weeks
. Aggressive hamstring strengthening program

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate surgical reconstruction of the PCL


Explanation

The scenario describes an isolated Grade II posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury (5-10 mm translation). The standard of care for isolated Grade I and II PCL injuries is nonoperative management, emphasizing early range of motion and quadriceps strengthening to counteract posterior tibial translation.

Question 1227

Topic: Knee Sports

A 31-year-old soccer player sustains a hyperextension and varus injury to his knee. On examination, he has 15 degrees of increased external tibial rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. This asymmetry completely resolves when tested at 90 degrees of flexion. Which structure is most likely injured?

. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Posterolateral corner (PLC)
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL)
. Posteromedial corner (PMC)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)


Explanation

Increased external rotation of the tibia at 30 degrees of flexion that reduces to normal at 90 degrees indicates an isolated injury to the posterolateral corner (PLC). If the rotational asymmetry persisted at 90 degrees, it would suggest a combined PLC and PCL injury.

Question 1228

Topic: Knee Sports

Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction is planned. When evaluating graft placement, a femoral tunnel positioned too anteriorly (shallow) in the intercondylar notch will result in a graft that is biomechanically:

. Tight in flexion, loose in extension
. Tight in extension, loose in flexion
. Tight in both flexion and extension
. Loose in both flexion and extension
. Isometrically tensioned throughout range of motion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tight in flexion, loose in extension


Explanation

An anteriorly placed femoral tunnel causes the distance between the femoral and tibial attachments to increase during knee flexion. This results in a graft that is tight in flexion and loose in extension.

Question 1229

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate football player undergoes anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft. During the procedure, the femoral tunnel is drilled too anteriorly. Which of the following complications is most likely to occur?

. Knee stiffness in flexion (loss of extension)
. Knee stiffness in extension (loss of flexion)
. Lateral patellar tracking
. Laxity of the graft in extension
. Anterior knee pain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Knee stiffness in flexion (loss of extension)


Explanation

An anterior femoral tunnel placement in ACL reconstruction results in increased graft tension during flexion, limiting knee flexion. Conversely, an excessively posterior femoral tunnel limits extension.

Question 1230

Topic: Knee Sports

A 30-year-old man sustains a severe varus and hyperextension injury to his knee. Examination shows a positive dial test at 30 degrees of flexion but normal rotation at 90 degrees. What is the primary injured structure?

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Posterolateral corner (PLC)
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL)
. Both PLC and PCL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)


Explanation

An isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury results in increased external rotation (positive dial test) at 30 degrees but not at 90 degrees. If the dial test is positive at both 30 and 90 degrees, a combined PLC and PCL injury is present.

Question 1231

Topic: Knee Sports

A 16-year-old girl experiences recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. Imaging shows a normal Tibial Tubercle-Trochlear Groove (TT-TG) distance and normal patellar height. She is scheduled for medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction. The anatomic femoral attachment of the MPFL is located:

. Anterior to the medial epicondyle and proximal to the adductor tubercle
. Posterior to the medial epicondyle and proximal to the adductor tubercle
. Distal to the medial epicondyle and posterior to the adductor tubercle
. Proximal and posterior to the medial epicondyle, and distal to the adductor tubercle
. Directly on the medial epicondyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior to the medial epicondyle and proximal to the adductor tubercle


Explanation

The Schรถttle point, indicating the anatomical femoral origin of the MPFL, is located proximal and posterior to the medial epicondyle, and distal to the adductor tubercle. Non-anatomic placement leads to altered patellofemoral kinematics.

Question 1232

Topic: Knee Sports

A 14-year-old boy presents with vague right knee pain and catching. Radiographs

reveal an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion. What is the most common anatomic location for an OCD lesion in the knee?

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Lateral aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Central trochlear groove
. Inferior pole of the patella

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle


Explanation

The classic location for osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle, commonly remembered by the mnemonic LAME (Lateral Aspect Medial Epicondyle/Condyle).

Question 1233

Topic: Knee Sports

An 18-year-old female soccer player sustains a non-contact valgus and twisting injury to her knee, resulting in an ACL tear. During anatomic single-bundle ACL reconstruction, the surgeon specifically evaluates the femoral footprint. The posterolateral (PL) bundle of the anterior cruciate ligament is under its greatest tension in which of the following positions?

. Full extension
. 30 degrees of flexion
. 60 degrees of flexion
. 90 degrees of flexion
. 120 degrees of flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Full extension


Explanation

The ACL has two main bundles: the anteromedial (AM) and posterolateral (PL). The PL bundle is tightest in full extension and primarily controls rotatory stability, whereas the AM bundle is tightest in flexion and controls anterior translation.

Question 1234

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old football player sustains a direct blow to the anteromedial aspect of his proximal tibia. Physical examination reveals increased external tibial rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetrical external rotation at 90 degrees compared to the contralateral knee. This isolated physical examination finding strongly indicates injury to the:

. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Posterolateral corner
. Medial collateral ligament
. Posteromedial corner

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

A positive dial test at 30 degrees of flexion that normalizes at 90 degrees of flexion is pathognomonic for an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If the test is positive at both 30 and 90 degrees, it indicates combined PLC and PCL injuries.

Question 1235

Topic: Knee Sports

A 55-year-old woman experiences a sudden popping sensation in the back of her knee while squatting to garden. An MRI reveals a medial meniscus posterior root tear. Biomechanically, this isolated injury is equivalent to which of the following?

. Total meniscectomy
. Partial meniscectomy
. Anterior cruciate ligament deficiency
. Posterior cruciate ligament deficiency
. Normal knee kinematics

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total meniscectomy


Explanation

A posterior root tear disrupts the hoop stresses of the meniscus, leading to radial extrusion under axial load. Biomechanical studies have demonstrated that a root tear results in contact pressures equivalent to a total meniscectomy, predisposing the joint to rapid chondrolysis.

Question 1236

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old athlete undergoes an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction. At his 3-month postoperative visit, he lacks 15 degrees of full extension. A lateral radiograph demonstrates that the tibial tunnel is placed anterior to the intersection of Blumensaat's line and the tibial plateau. What is the most likely biomechanical consequence of this tunnel malposition?

. Intercondylar roof impingement
. PCL impingement
. Premature graft rupture during deep flexion
. Lateral meniscal root avulsion
. Posterior knee instability

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intercondylar roof impingement


Explanation

Anterior placement of the tibial tunnel causes the ACL graft to impinge against the intercondylar roof during knee extension. This roof impingement leads to an extension deficit, anterior knee pain, and potential attrition or failure of the graft.

Question 1237

Topic: Knee Sports

A 26-year-old soccer player sustains a twisting injury to his knee. Physical examination reveals a positive posterior sag sign. A Dial test is performed, demonstrating a 15-degree increase in external rotation of the tibia compared to the contralateral leg at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetrical external rotation at 90 degrees of knee flexion. These findings indicate an isolated injury to which structure?

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Posterolateral corner (PLC)
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL)
. Popliteus tendon only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)


Explanation

An increase in external rotation on the Dial test at 30 degrees of knee flexion that reduces to normal at 90 degrees indicates an isolated injury to the posterolateral corner (PLC). Combined PLC and PCL injuries show increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.

Question 1238

Topic: Knee Sports

A 16-year-old female experiences an acute lateral patellar dislocation while dancing. She is evaluated in the emergency department and reduced. Which of the following describes the most common anatomic location of injury to the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) in this setting?

. Midsubstance
. Tibial insertion
. Femoral origin
. Patellar insertion
. Vastus medialis obliquus (VMO) aponeurosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Midsubstance


Explanation

In acute lateral patellar dislocations, the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) most commonly fails at its femoral origin. The femoral origin is located between the medial epicondyle and the adductor tubercle.

Question 1239

Topic: Knee Sports

During an anatomic reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee, careful dissection is required to protect the common peroneal nerve. To avoid iatrogenic injury, the surgeon must consistently identify the nerve in relation to which primary anatomic landmark?

. Posterior to the lateral head of the gastrocnemius
. Deep to the popliteus muscle belly
. Posterior to the biceps femoris tendon at the fibular head
. Anterior to the fibular collateral ligament
. Within the deep substance of the iliotibial band

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior to the lateral head of the gastrocnemius


Explanation

The common peroneal nerve courses posterior to the biceps femoris tendon before wrapping around the fibular neck. Identification and protection of the nerve in this specific location are critical initial steps in posterolateral corner reconstruction.

Question 1240

Topic: Knee Sports

A football running back sustains a blow to the anteromedial aspect of his knee. Physical examination reveals 15 degrees of increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. A posterior sag sign is also present. Which structures are most likely injured?

. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) and popliteus only
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) and anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) and posterolateral corner (PLC)
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL) and posteromedial corner

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) and popliteus only


Explanation

Increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees of knee flexion during the dial test indicates a combined injury to the PCL and the PLC. Isolated PLC injuries typically demonstrate increased external rotation at 30 degrees only.