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Question 1241

Topic: Knee Sports

Following a first-time lateral patellar dislocation in a 16-year-old female, the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) is identified on MRI as the primary torn restraint. If surgical reconstruction is planned, where is the normal anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL (Schottle's point) located?

. Anterior to the medial epicondyle and proximal to the adductor tubercle
. Posterior to the medial epicondyle and distal to the adductor tubercle
. Between the medial epicondyle and the adductor tubercle
. Directly on the adductor tubercle
. Distal to the medial epicondyle and anterior to the adductor tubercle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior to the medial epicondyle and proximal to the adductor tubercle


Explanation

The anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL is located in a saddle-shaped region between the medial epicondyle and the adductor tubercle. Non-anatomic reconstruction can lead to abnormal graft tension, stiffness, and altered patellofemoral kinematics.

Question 1242

Topic: Knee Sports

A 14-year-old male soccer player presents with vague anterior knee pain and mechanical catching. Radiographs demonstrate an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion. What is the most common anatomic location for an OCD lesion of the knee?

. Central weight-bearing lateral femoral condyle
. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Trochlear groove
. Patellar articular surface

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Central weight-bearing lateral femoral condyle


Explanation

The classic and most common location for osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. This area is vulnerable to repetitive microtrauma, particularly in the setting of tibial spine impingement.

Question 1243

Topic: Knee Sports

A 28-year-old male presents with knee pain and instability after a hyperextension injury. Physical examination demonstrates an abnormal dial test with 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. At 90 degrees of flexion, external rotation is symmetrical bilaterally. Which structure(s) is/are injured?

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) only
. Posterolateral corner (PLC) only
. Combined PLC and PCL
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and PLC
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL) and PCL

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) only


Explanation

An isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury presents with increased external rotation on the dial test at 30 degrees of knee flexion. If external rotation is increased at both 30 and 90 degrees, it indicates a combined PLC and PCL injury.

Question 1244

Topic: Knee Sports

A 45-year-old female feels a "pop" in the posterior aspect of her knee while deep squatting. MRI confirms a posterior root tear of the medial meniscus. Left untreated, this injury biomechanically alters the knee in a manner most similar to which of the following?

. Total medial meniscectomy
. Anterior cruciate ligament tear
. Posterior cruciate ligament tear
. Peripheral longitudinal meniscal tear
. Focal Grade II chondral defect

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total medial meniscectomy


Explanation

A meniscal root tear completely disrupts the circumferential hoop stresses of the meniscus, leading to radial extrusion. Biomechanically, this results in peak contact pressures equivalent to a total meniscectomy, rapidly accelerating osteoarthritis.

Question 1245

Topic: Knee Sports

During a medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction for recurrent patellar instability, the surgeon inadvertently places the femoral tunnel proximal and anterior to the true anatomic insertion (Schottle's point). This malpositioning will cause the graft to be:

. Tight in extension and loose in flexion
. Loose in extension and tight in flexion
. Isometrically tensioned throughout the arc of motion
. Over-constrained causing medial patellar subluxation in extension
. Prone to patellar fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tight in extension and loose in flexion


Explanation

A femoral tunnel placed too proximal and anterior to the anatomic MPFL footprint increases the distance to the patella as the knee flexes. This results in a graft that is inappropriately loose in extension and excessively tight in flexion.

Question 1246

Topic: Knee Sports

A 30-year-old man presents with chronic knee pain 10 years after sustaining an isolated, untreated Grade III PCL tear. Based on the altered kinematics of a PCL-deficient knee, which compartments are most likely to demonstrate advanced osteoarthritic changes?

. Medial and patellofemoral
. Lateral and patellofemoral
. Medial and lateral
. Lateral only
. Medial only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial and patellofemoral


Explanation

Chronic PCL deficiency causes posterior tibial translation, which alters knee kinematics and leads to significantly increased contact pressures. This predictably causes premature osteoarthritis in the medial compartment and the patellofemoral joint.

Question 1247

Topic: Knee Sports

A 20-year-old soccer player sustains a non-contact twisting knee injury. Radiographs show a small avulsion fracture of the anterolateral proximal tibia.

What is the most likely associated ligamentous injury, and what is its primary biomechanical function?

. Posterior cruciate ligament; resists posterior tibial translation
. Anterior cruciate ligament; resists anterior tibial translation
. Lateral collateral ligament; resists varus stress
. Medial collateral ligament; resists valgus stress
. Anterolateral ligament; resists isolated external rotation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament; resists posterior tibial translation


Explanation

A Segond fracture is an avulsion of the anterolateral proximal tibia and is pathognomonic for an ACL tear. The primary function of the ACL is to resist anterior tibial translation.

Question 1248

Topic: Knee Sports

During an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction using an anteromedial portal technique, the surgeon aims to place the femoral tunnel in the anatomic footprint. Compared to the traditional transtibial technique, the anteromedial portal technique is associated with which of the following tunnel characteristics?

. A more vertical femoral tunnel
. A more anterior femoral tunnel
. Independent placement of the femoral tunnel relative to the tibial tunnel
. Decreased risk of posterior wall blowout
. Increased graft mismatch length inside the joint

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A more vertical femoral tunnel


Explanation

The anteromedial portal technique allows for independent drilling of the femoral tunnel, enabling a more anatomic, horizontal placement in the ACL footprint compared to the transtibial technique, which restricts femoral tunnel position based on the tibial tunnel trajectory.

Question 1249

Topic: Knee Sports

A 24-year-old male sustains a traumatic knee injury. On physical examination, the dial test reveals 15 degrees of increased external rotation compared to the contralateral side at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetrical external rotation at 90 degrees of knee flexion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
. Combined PLC and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury
. Isolated PCL injury
. Combined anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and PLC injury
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL) tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury


Explanation

The dial test evaluates posterolateral rotatory instability. Increased external rotation (>10 degrees compared to the normal side) at 30 degrees only indicates an isolated PLC injury. Increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees indicates a combined PLC and PCL injury.

Question 1250

Topic: Knee Sports

A 16-year-old female presents with recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. The decision is made to perform a medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction. To prevent overloading the medial compartment and restricted knee flexion, the femoral attachment of the graft must be accurately placed. Where is the anatomic origin of the MPFL on the femur?

. Anterior to the medial epicondyle and proximal to the adductor tubercle
. Posterior to the medial epicondyle and distal to the adductor tubercle
. Between the medial epicondyle and the adductor tubercle
. At the posterior aspect of the medial femoral condyle articular cartilage
. Proximal to the adductor tubercle and anterior to the medial supracondylar line

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior to the medial epicondyle and proximal to the adductor tubercle


Explanation

The anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL (often localized radiographically via Schottle's point) is situated in a saddle-shaped depression between the adductor tubercle (proximally) and the medial epicondyle (distally). Non-anatomic placement, particularly too proximal, leads to increased graft tension in flexion.

Question 1251

Topic: Knee Sports

A 14-year-old male presents with vaguely localized knee pain and occasional catching. Radiographs reveal an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion. What is the most common anatomical location for this lesion in the knee?

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Central weight-bearing dome of the medial femoral condyle
. Patellar articular surface
. Lateral aspect of the lateral femoral condyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle


Explanation

The most common location for an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion in the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle (classic location), accounting for approximately 70-80% of cases.

Question 1252

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old male sustains a direct blow to the proximal tibia with his knee flexed during a rugby match. On physical examination, he has a positive posterior drawer test. A dial test is performed, demonstrating greater than 10 degrees of increased external rotation compared to the contralateral knee at both 30 degrees and 90 degrees of flexion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear
. Combined PCL and posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
. Combined ACL and posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
. Combined ACL and PCL tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury


Explanation

The dial test evaluates for excessive external rotation. Asymmetry of >10 degrees at 30 degrees of flexion only indicates an isolated PLC injury, whereas asymmetry at both 30 and 90 degrees of flexion indicates a combined PCL and PLC injury.

Question 1253

Topic: Knee Sports

A 16-year-old female presents with recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. She is scheduled for a medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction. To ensure proper graft isometry, the femoral tunnel must be placed at Schรถttle's point. Where is this anatomic location relative to the osseous landmarks?

. Anterior to the medial epicondyle
. Superior to the adductor tubercle
. Between the medial epicondyle and adductor tubercle
. Distal to the medial epicondyle
. On the lateral epicondyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior to the medial epicondyle


Explanation

The anatomic femoral origin of the MPFL (Schรถttle's point) is located in a saddle-like depression between the medial epicondyle and the adductor tubercle.

Question 1254

Topic: Knee Sports

A 48-year-old female feels a "pop" in her posterior knee while squatting to garden. An MRI reveals an isolated complete tear of the medial meniscus posterior root. Biomechanically, this injury is equivalent to which of the following?

. A stable knee with normal contact pressures
. A knee after a total medial meniscectomy
. An isolated posterior cruciate ligament tear
. A knee after an anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction
. A radial tear of the anterior horn of the medial meniscus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A stable knee with normal contact pressures


Explanation

A complete tear of the meniscal root disrupts hoop stresses within the meniscus, causing it to extrude under load. Biomechanically, this alters tibiofemoral contact pressures to a degree equivalent to a total meniscectomy.

Question 1255

Topic: Knee Sports

A 26-year-old runner presents with chronic, deep ankle pain. MRI reveals a 1.8 square centimeter osteochondral lesion (OCL) on the medial talar dome without subchondral cysts. He has failed 6 months of conservative care. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment?

. Arthroscopic bone marrow stimulation (microfracture)
. Arthroscopic partial synovectomy
. Osteochondral autograft transfer system (OATS)
. Ankle arthrodesis
. Total ankle arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic bone marrow stimulation (microfracture)


Explanation

Microfracture is generally recommended for talar OCLs smaller than 1.5 cm^2. For larger lesions (>1.5 cm^2), structural grafting with techniques like OATS provides superior outcomes and better hyaline-like cartilage restoration.

Question 1256

Topic: Knee Sports

A 14-year-old male complains of vague, activity-related knee pain. Radiographs demonstrate an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion.

What is the most common anatomic location for an OCD lesion in the knee?

. Medial aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Lateral aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Inferior pole of the patella

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial aspect of the medial femoral condyle


Explanation

The most common location for osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) of the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle, accounting for over 70% of cases.

Question 1257

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old football player complains of knee instability after a direct blow to the anteromedial tibia. The Dial test demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetric rotation compared to the contralateral side at 90 degrees. Which structure is most likely injured?

. Lateral collateral ligament and popliteus tendon
. Posterior cruciate ligament alone
. Posterior cruciate ligament and lateral collateral ligament
. Anterior cruciate ligament and posterolateral corner
. Medial collateral ligament and posterior oblique ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral collateral ligament and popliteus tendon


Explanation

An isolated injury to the posterolateral corner (LCL and popliteus) typically presents with increased external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion. At 90 degrees, the intact posterior cruciate ligament acts as a secondary restraint, neutralizing the rotational asymmetry.

Question 1258

Topic: Knee Sports

An 18-year-old female has recurrent lateral patellar instability. Advanced imaging demonstrates a tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance of 24 mm and a normal Caton-Deschamps ratio. What is the most appropriate surgical procedure?

. Isolated Medial Patellofemoral Ligament (MPFL) reconstruction
. Arthroscopic lateral retinacular release
. Tibial tubercle anteromedialization and MPFL reconstruction
. Proximal soft-tissue realignment (Insall procedure)
. Trochleoplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated Medial Patellofemoral Ligament (MPFL) reconstruction


Explanation

A TT-TG distance greater than 20 mm is pathognomonic for severe lateralizing patellar forces and requires a tibial tubercle osteotomy (anteromedialization) to normalize the extensor mechanism. Isolated MPFL reconstruction in this setting has a high failure rate due to uncorrected bony malalignment.

Question 1259

Topic: Knee Sports

A 45-year-old female experiences a painful pop in the posterior aspect of her knee while squatting to garden. MRI shows a radial tear adjacent to the posterior horn medial meniscus attachment. What is the primary biomechanical consequence of leaving this specific tear untreated?

. Increased tension on the anterior cruciate ligament during extension
. Loss of hoop stresses equivalent to a total meniscectomy
. Medial compartment narrowing solely due to increased meniscal cartilage stiffness
. Compensatory lateral compartment mechanical overload
. Development of a localized parameniscal cyst without articular cartilage changes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased tension on the anterior cruciate ligament during extension


Explanation

A posterior medial meniscal root tear completely disrupts the circumferential hoop stresses of the meniscus, leading to load transmission equivalent to a complete meniscectomy. This results in rapid articular cartilage wear and accelerated medial compartment osteoarthritis if left uncorrected.

Question 1260

Topic: Knee Sports

A 14-year-old male presents with vague, aching knee pain. Radiographs demonstrate an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion. What is the classic and most common anatomic location for an OCD lesion in the knee?

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle
. Medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle
. Central portion of the trochlear groove
. Inferior pole of the patella
. Posterior aspect of the lateral tibial plateau

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle


Explanation

The classic and most common location for an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion in the knee is the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. This location accounts for approximately 70 percent of all knee OCD lesions seen in clinical practice.