Question 1181
Topic: Knee SportsCorrect Answer & Explanation
. Total meniscectomy
Practice Set 60 of 102
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Knee Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Total meniscectomy
A 22-year-old male presents with a knee injury after a tackling collision. The dial test demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees. This finding indicates an isolated injury to which structure?
. Anterior cruciate ligament
During an ACL reconstruction, arthroscopic evaluation of the posteromedial compartment reveals a longitudinal tear at the meniscocapsular junction of the posterior horn of the medial meniscus. This specific pathology is commonly referred to as a:
. Radial tear
During a double-bundle posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction, the anterolateral bundle is biomechanically optimized when tensioned and fixed at what angle of knee flexion?
. Full extension
A 30-year-old runner presents with a palpable, tender mass along the lateral joint line of the knee. MRI shows a multiloculated cystic structure associated with the lateral meniscus. This condition is most strongly associated with which type of meniscal tear?
. Radial tear
A 32-year-old male undergoes a posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) reconstruction. The surgeon opts for an open tibial inlay technique rather than a traditional transtibial tunnel technique. The primary biomechanical and anatomical advantage of the inlay technique is:
. Decreased risk of popliteal artery injury
A 55-year-old woman feels a pop in her posterior knee while deep squatting. MRI reveals an extruded medial meniscus and a complete defect at the posterior horn root. Biomechanically, an unrepaired complete medial meniscus posterior root tear is equivalent to:
. A 50% partial meniscectomy
. Distal (tibial) avulsion
A 27-year-old male presents with chronic knee instability. Physical examination demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. At 90 degrees of flexion, the external rotation is symmetric bilaterally. This Dial test finding indicates an isolated injury to which structure?
. Anterior cruciate ligament
Surgical reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee aims to restore its three primary static stabilizers. These structures include the lateral collateral ligament, the popliteus tendon, and the:
. Iliotibial band
The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) consists of two functional bundles. What is the tensioning pattern of these bundles throughout the knee's range of motion?
. Anterolateral tight in extension; Posteromedial tight in flexion
Proponents of double-bundle anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction argue that it more accurately restores native knee kinematics compared to single-bundle reconstruction. Specifically, biomechanical studies suggest double-bundle reconstruction provides superior control of:
. Anterior translation at 90 degrees of flexion
A 24-year-old professional football player sustains a direct blow to the proximal tibia with the knee flexed, resulting in a posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury. Which bundle of the PCL is the primary restraint to posterior tibial translation at 90 degrees of knee flexion?
. Anterolateral bundle
A 30-year-old skier sustains a twisting injury to his knee. On physical examination, the dial test demonstrates 20 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side. At 90 degrees of flexion, the external rotation is symmetric to the normal knee. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury
A 22-year-old football player sustains a direct blow to the proximal tibia while his knee is flexed. Exam shows a posterior sag sign and +2 posterior drawer at 90 degrees of flexion, but no varus/valgus instability. Dial test is symmetric at 30 and 90 degrees. What is the most appropriate initial management?
. Acute PCL reconstruction
Biomechanical studies have demonstrated that a complete radial tear of the medial meniscus posterior root results in contact pressures most similar to which of the following conditions?
. An intact meniscus
During clinical examination of a knee with a suspected multiligamentous injury, the dial test demonstrates 20 degrees of increased external rotation compared to the contralateral side at 30 degrees of knee flexion. At 90 degrees of knee flexion, the external rotation is symmetric to the normal side. This physical examination finding is most consistent with:
. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury
When evaluating the vascular supply of the menisci for potential repair, the peripheral blood supply predominantly arises from which of the following arteries?
. Descending genicular artery
A 12-year-old boy (Tanner stage II) sustains a midsubstance ACL rupture. He has significant growth remaining. Which of the following surgical techniques is most appropriate to minimize the risk of growth arrest or angular deformity?
. Transphyseal bone-patellar tendon-bone (BPTB) reconstruction
The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) consists of two main functional bundles. Which of the following best describes the biomechanical behavior of the anteromedial (AM) and posterolateral (PL) bundles during knee range of motion?
. AM bundle is tight in extension, PL bundle is tight in flexion