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Question 1161

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old soccer player undergoes an acute ACL reconstruction along with a meniscal repair for a vertical longitudinal tear in the red-red zone of the medial meniscus. Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with successful healing of this meniscal tear?

. Concomitant ACL reconstruction
. Patient age strictly less than 18 years
. The use of an inside-out repair technique rather than all-inside
. The use of nonabsorbable sutures
. Delaying the repair more than 12 weeks from the time of injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Concomitant ACL reconstruction


Explanation

Concomitant ACL reconstruction creates a post-operative hemarthrosis rich in growth factors and bone marrow elements (from notch preparation and tunnel drilling). This biological environment significantly improves the healing rates of concurrent meniscal repairs.

Question 1162

Topic: Knee Sports

A 17-year-old female experiences recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. Evaluation reveals a tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance of 22 mm and a normal Patellar Height (Caton-Deschamps index 1.0). Which surgical intervention is most appropriate to address her instability?

. Isolated medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction
. Lateral retinacular release alone
. Medializing tibial tubercle osteotomy and MPFL reconstruction
. Distalizing tibial tubercle osteotomy
. Trochleoplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction


Explanation

A TT-TG distance greater than 20 mm is considered pathologic and predisposes the patella to lateral instability. A medializing tibial tubercle osteotomy (e.g., Fulkerson osteotomy) combined with MPFL reconstruction is indicated to correct both the bony malalignment and soft tissue deficiency.

Question 1163

Topic: Knee Sports

A 14-year-old male presents with knee pain. Radiographs show an osteochondritis dissecans (OCD) lesion on the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. His physes are open, and MRI shows no high T2 signal behind the lesion. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Transarticular drilling of the lesion
. Fixation with bioabsorbable pins
. Osteochondral autograft transfer (OATS)
. Protected weight-bearing and activity modification
. Arthroscopic microfracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transarticular drilling of the lesion


Explanation

Juvenile OCD lesions (occurring in patients with open physes) that are stable on MRI (indicated by the lack of high T2 signal fluid behind the fragment) have a high rate of spontaneous healing. Protected weight-bearing and activity modification for 3 to 6 months is the standard initial treatment.

Question 1164

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old sustains a direct blow to the anteromedial tibia with the knee in extension. Examination reveals a grade 3 varus stress test at 30 degrees of flexion and a positive dial test at 30 degrees. However, at 90 degrees of flexion, the dial test is symmetric to the contralateral side. Which structures are most likely injured?

. Isolated Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)
. Lateral Collateral Ligament (LCL), popliteus tendon, and popliteofibular ligament
. Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) and LCL
. PCL and the entire Posterolateral Corner (PLC)
. Posteromedial corner and Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)


Explanation

An isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury results in increased external rotation on the dial test at 30 degrees of knee flexion but not at 90 degrees. If the PCL is concomitantly injured, the dial test will be positive (increased external rotation >10 degrees) at both 30 and 90 degrees.

Question 1165

Topic: Knee Sports

Microfracture is a marrow-stimulating technique used to treat full-thickness chondral defects. The resulting repair tissue differs biochemically from native hyaline cartilage predominantly by having a higher concentration of:

. Type I collagen
. Type II collagen
. Aggrecan
. Water
. Hyaluronic acid

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type I collagen


Explanation

Microfracture stimulates the formation of a fibrocartilage clot. Unlike native hyaline cartilage, which is rich in type II collagen and aggrecan, the resulting fibrocartilage repair tissue contains predominantly type I collagen and has inferior long-term biomechanical properties.

Question 1166

Topic: Knee Sports

Following a microfracture procedure for a focal chondral defect in the medial femoral condyle, the resultant repair tissue is primarily composed of which of the following collagen types?

. Type I
. Type II
. Type III
. Type IX
. Type X

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type I


Explanation

Microfracture stimulates the release of marrow elements, leading to the formation of a fibrocartilage clot. This repair tissue is biomechanically inferior to normal hyaline cartilage because it is primarily composed of Type I collagen rather than Type II collagen.

Question 1167

Topic: Knee Sports

Microfracture of a full-thickness articular cartilage defect relies on marrow stimulation to form a repair tissue. Which of the following best characterizes the predominant collagen type in this repair tissue?

. Type I collagen
. Type II collagen
. Type IX collagen
. Type X collagen
. Type XI collagen

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type I collagen


Explanation

Microfracture stimulates the formation of fibrocartilage, which is predominantly composed of Type I collagen. Unlike native hyaline cartilage (Type II collagen), fibrocartilage has inferior biomechanical properties and is less durable over time.

Question 1168

Topic: Knee Sports

During clinical examination of a knee, applying a varus stress at 30 degrees of flexion primarily tests the integrity of which of the following structures?

. Popliteofibular ligament
. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Iliotibial band
. Popliteus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Popliteofibular ligament


Explanation

The lateral collateral ligament (LCL) is the primary restraint to varus stress at the knee, and it is best isolated at 30 degrees of flexion. At extension, secondary stabilizers like the posterior capsule contribute to varus stability.

Question 1169

Topic: Knee Sports

On an MRI of the knee, an intact meniscofemoral ligament is identified. The ligament of Wrisberg is characterized by its anatomic relationship to the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). Which description is correct?

. It passes anterior to the PCL to attach to the medial femoral condyle.
. It passes posterior to the PCL to attach to the medial femoral condyle.
. It originates from the medial meniscus and passes anterior to the PCL.
. It passes posterior to the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL).
. It connects the anterior horns of the medial and lateral menisci.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It passes anterior to the PCL to attach to the medial femoral condyle.


Explanation

The meniscofemoral ligaments connect the posterior horn of the lateral meniscus to the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. The ligament of Humphrey passes anterior to the PCL, while the ligament of Wrisberg passes posterior to the PCL.

Question 1170

Topic: Knee Sports

Reconstruction of the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) requires accurate femoral tunnel placement. Where is the anatomic origin of the MPFL on the medial femur?

. Directly on the peak of the adductor tubercle
. Posterior and distal to the medial epicondyle
. In the saddle region between the adductor tubercle and the medial epicondyle
. Anterior to the origin of the superficial medial collateral ligament
. Superior to the adductor magnus insertion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Directly on the peak of the adductor tubercle


Explanation

The anatomic femoral footprint of the MPFL is located in a saddle-shaped depression between the adductor tubercle (superiorly) and the medial epicondyle (inferiorly). Proper isometric placement of the femoral graft is critical for successful reconstruction.

Question 1171

Topic: Knee Sports

During a physical examination, the knee demonstrates increased varus laxity at 30 degrees of flexion but is stable in full extension. Which structure provides the primary restraint to varus stress at 30 degrees of knee flexion?

. Posterolateral capsule
. Popliteus tendon
. Fibular collateral ligament (LCL)
. Iliotibial band
. Anterior cruciate ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterolateral capsule


Explanation

The fibular collateral ligament (LCL) is the primary static restraint to varus stress at all angles of knee flexion, but its isolation is tested best at 30 degrees of flexion, where the posterolateral corner and cruciate ligaments are relaxed.

Question 1172

Topic: Knee Sports

The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is composed of two primary bundles that exhibit unique tension patterns throughout the arc of knee motion. Which of the following statements correctly describes the biomechanics of these bundles?

. The anteromedial bundle is tight in flexion and controls anterior translation.
. The anteromedial bundle is tight in extension and controls rotation.
. The posterolateral bundle is tight in flexion and controls anterior translation.
. The posterolateral bundle is tight in flexion and controls rotation.
. Both bundles maintain equal tension throughout the entire arc of motion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The anteromedial bundle is tight in flexion and controls anterior translation.


Explanation

The anteromedial (AM) bundle tightens in flexion and acts as the primary restraint to anterior tibial translation. The posterolateral (PL) bundle tightens in extension and is the primary restraint to rotatory instability.

Question 1173

Topic: Knee Sports

Injury to the posterolateral corner of the knee can result in significant rotatory and varus instability. Which of the following structures is the primary static stabilizer against external tibial rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion?

. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
. Popliteus tendon
. Popliteofibular ligament
. Iliotibial band
. Fabellofibular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)


Explanation

The popliteofibular ligament is the primary static restraint to external tibial rotation. The LCL primarily restrains varus stress, whereas the popliteus tendon acts as a dynamic stabilizer.

Question 1174

Topic: Knee Sports

The medial meniscus of the knee is injured more frequently than the lateral meniscus, largely due to its restricted mobility. Which anatomic attachment primarily limits the translation of the medial meniscus during knee motion?

. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Deep medial collateral ligament
. Oblique popliteal ligament
. Ligament of Wrisberg

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

The medial meniscus is firmly attached to the joint capsule and the deep medial collateral ligament (meniscofemoral and meniscotibial components). This rigid peripheral fixation prevents it from displacing to avoid shear forces, unlike the more mobile lateral meniscus.

Question 1175

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old male sustains a direct blow to the anteromedial aspect of his knee, resulting in a posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. During surgical reconstruction, the surgeon must identify the femoral attachments of the LCL and the popliteus tendon. What is the correct anatomical relationship of the popliteus tendon origin relative to the LCL femoral footprint?

. Anterior and inferior
. Anterior and superior
. Posterior and inferior
. Posterior and superior
. Directly medial

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior and inferior


Explanation

The popliteus tendon inserts on the lateral femoral condyle consistently anterior and inferior to the femoral attachment of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL). Recognizing this anatomic relationship is critical during anatomic posterolateral corner reconstructions.

Question 1176

Topic: Knee Sports

During placement of a retrograde intramedullary nail for a femur fracture, the starting point is made in the intercondylar notch. The surgeon must be careful to avoid injuring which of the following ligamentous structures that attaches to the medial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle?

. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Medial collateral ligament
. Lateral collateral ligament
. Posterior meniscofemoral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) originates from the posteromedial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle. The standard retrograde femoral nail starting point is strictly anterior to the PCL origin to avoid damaging the ACL.

Question 1177

Topic: Knee Sports

The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is composed of two primary bundles. In which position is the anteromedial (AM) bundle under the greatest tension?

. Extension
. Flexion
. Internal rotation
. External rotation
. Valgus stress

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extension


Explanation

The anteromedial (AM) bundle of the ACL is tightest in knee flexion and primarily controls anterior tibial translation. Conversely, the posterolateral (PL) bundle is tightest in extension and controls rotatory stability.

Question 1178

Topic: Knee Sports



When evaluating injuries to the posterolateral corner of the knee, understanding the intricate capsuloligamentous anatomy is paramount. Which specific structure directly attaches the fibular head to the lateral meniscus?

. Arcuate ligament
. Popliteofibular ligament
. Lateral collateral ligament
. Coronary ligament
. Meniscofibular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arcuate ligament


Explanation

The meniscofibular ligament attaches the inferior peripheral margin of the lateral meniscus directly to the fibular head. It is an integral component of the posterolateral corner, contributing to lateral meniscal stability.

Question 1179

Topic: Knee Sports

The posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee provides critical rotatory stability. Which structure is the primary restraint to external rotation of the tibia at 30 degrees of knee flexion?

. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Lateral collateral ligament
. Popliteus complex
. Iliotibial band

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

The popliteus complex (including the popliteofibular ligament) is the primary restraint to external rotation of the tibia at 30 degrees of flexion. The LCL is the primary restraint to varus stress.

Question 1180

Topic: Knee Sports

A 10-year-old male Tanner stage 1 soccer player sustains a complete anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. Which of the following surgical techniques minimizes the risk of iatrogenic growth arrest in this patient?

. Iliotibial band extra-articular tenodesis alone
. All-epiphyseal ACL reconstruction
. Transphyseal reconstruction with 10-mm bone blocks
. Nonoperative management with a hinged knee brace
. Primary ACL repair without augmentation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliotibial band extra-articular tenodesis alone


Explanation

In a Tanner stage 1 patient with significant remaining growth, an all-epiphyseal or physeal-sparing extra-articular reconstruction minimizes the risk of physeal arrest. Transphyseal techniques carry a higher risk of growth disturbance in prepubescent children.