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Question 1101

Topic: Knee Sports

A 25-year-old male sustains a twisting injury to his knee. Physical examination reveals an isolated increase in external tibial rotation of 15 degrees compared to the contralateral side when tested at 30 degrees of knee flexion. The external rotation normalizes and is symmetric at 90 degrees of flexion. Which structure is most likely injured?

. Isolated Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)
. Isolated Posterolateral Corner (PLC)
. Combined PCL and PLC
. Isolated Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL)
. Combined ACL and Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)


Explanation

An isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury typically presents with increased external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion that normalizes at 90 degrees. A combined PLC and PCL injury would demonstrate increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.

Question 1102

Topic: Knee Sports

A 24-year-old male presents 6 months after an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction complaining of a lack of full terminal extension. Sagittal MRI reveals that the tibial tunnel was placed too anteriorly. The graft is most likely impinging against which of the following structures?

. Intercondylar roof (Blumensaat's line)
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Lateral femoral condyle
. Medial femoral condyle
. Transverse meniscal ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intercondylar roof (Blumensaat's line)


Explanation

A tibial tunnel placed too anteriorly during ACL reconstruction results in graft impingement against the intercondylar roof (Blumensaat's line) during terminal knee extension. This mechanical block leads to an extension deficit and potential graft failure.

Question 1103

Topic: Knee Sports

A 24-year-old male sustains a traumatic knee injury. On physical examination, the dial test reveals 15 degrees of increased external rotation on the injured side compared to the normal side when tested at 30 degrees of knee flexion. However, at 90 degrees of knee flexion, the external rotation is symmetric bilaterally. What is the most likely injured structure?

. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament
. Isolated posterolateral corner
. Combined posterior cruciate ligament and posterolateral corner
. Combined anterior cruciate ligament and medial collateral ligament
. Isolated lateral collateral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

A positive dial test (greater than 10 degrees of asymmetry) at 30 degrees of flexion that normalizes at 90 degrees indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If the asymmetry is present at both 30 and 90 degrees, it indicates a combined PLC and PCL injury.

Question 1104

Topic: Knee Sports

A 21-year-old female recreational skier felt a "pop" in her knee during a twisting fall. An AP radiograph in the emergency department reveals a small, elliptical bony avulsion fragment just lateral to the lateral tibial plateau.

This radiographic finding is most highly associated with an injury to which of the following structures?

. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Medial collateral ligament
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Popliteofibular ligament
. Medial patellofemoral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

The Segond fracture is an avulsion of the anterolateral ligament and lateral capsule from the lateral tibia. It is pathognomonic for an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear and represents significant anterolateral rotatory instability.

Question 1105

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old soccer player sustains a twisting injury to his knee. Radiographs reveal a small avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau. What is the most commonly associated ligamentous injury?

. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Medial collateral ligament
. Lateral collateral ligament
. Posterolateral corner

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

The clinical scenario describes a Segond fracture, an avulsion of the anterolateral ligament complex from the lateral tibial plateau. It is highly pathognomonic for an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear.

Question 1106

Topic: Knee Sports

A 26-year-old female skier presents with a multiligamentous knee injury. Physical examination reveals a positive dial test with 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury
. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
. Combined PCL and PLC injury
. Combined ACL and PLC injury
. Isolated lateral collateral ligament injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury


Explanation

An isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury presents with increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion but not at 90 degrees. A combined PCL and PLC injury would show increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.

Question 1107

Topic: Knee Sports

A 20-year-old gymnast has persistent anterolateral ankle pain 6 months following a severe inversion injury. MRI reveals a 12-mm osteochondral lesion of the talus (OLT) on the anterolateral dome. Initial management with immobilization and physical therapy has failed. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Ankle arthrodesis
. Osteochondral autograft transfer (OATS)
. Arthroscopic bone marrow stimulation (microfracture)
. Matrix-induced autologous chondrocyte implantation (MACI)
. Subtalar arthrodesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Ankle arthrodesis


Explanation

For symptomatic osteochondral lesions of the talus less than 1.5 cm in diameter that have failed nonoperative management, arthroscopic debridement and bone marrow stimulation (microfracture) is the gold standard primary surgical treatment.

Question 1108

Topic: Knee Sports

A 16-year-old female dancer experiences recurrent lateral patellar instability.

Imaging reveals a tibial tubercle-trochlear groove (TT-TG) distance of 22 mm and a normal patellar height. Which of the following surgical interventions is most appropriate?

. Isolated medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction
. Lateral retinacular release
. Medializing tibial tubercle osteotomy
. Distalizing tibial tubercle osteotomy
. Trochleoplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction


Explanation

A TT-TG distance greater than 20 mm is a biomechanical risk factor for lateral patellar dislocation and an indication for a medializing tibial tubercle osteotomy (Fulkerson osteotomy) to correct the abnormal extensor mechanism vector.

Question 1109

Topic: Knee Sports

Which of the following native structures serves as the primary restraint to lateral patellar translation at 0 to 20 degrees of knee flexion?

. Lateral retinaculum
. Vastus medialis obliquus (VMO)
. Medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL)
. Medial patellotibial ligament
. Medial meniscopatellar ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral retinaculum


Explanation

The medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) is the primary passive restraint to lateral patellar translation in early knee flexion (0 to 20 degrees), contributing approximately 50-60% of the restraining force.

Question 1110

Topic: Knee Sports

During reconstruction of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) using a bone-patellar tendon-bone autograft, the femoral tunnel is drilled too anteriorly. What is the most likely clinical consequence of this technical error?

. Loss of terminal extension
. Loss of deep flexion
. Increased anterior translation in extension only
. Patellar fracture
. Graft rupture during deep flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of terminal extension


Explanation

An anteriorly placed femoral tunnel in ACL reconstruction causes the graft to be relatively short in flexion and tightens excessively as the knee bends. This leads to a loss of deep flexion and a high risk of graft rupture during flexion.

Question 1111

Topic: Knee Sports

A 12-year-old male soccer player with widely open physes sustains an acute, complete tear of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL). He has recurrent episodes of giving way. To minimize the risk of physeal growth arrest or angular deformity during reconstruction, which of the following techniques is most appropriate?

. Iliotibial band extra-articular tenodesis alone
. Transphyseal bone-patellar tendon-bone reconstruction
. All-epiphyseal ACL reconstruction
. Primary ACL repair without augmentation
. Conservative management with a hinged knee brace

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliotibial band extra-articular tenodesis alone


Explanation

All-epiphyseal ACL reconstruction avoids drilling through the distal femoral and proximal tibial physes, significantly reducing the risk of premature physeal closure and angular deformity in skeletally immature patients with significant growth remaining.

Question 1112

Topic: Knee Sports

A 24-year-old skier sustains a hyperextension and varus force to her knee. On physical examination, the dial test reveals 15 degrees of increased external rotation compared to the contralateral knee at 30 degrees of flexion, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. Which injury pattern does this indicate?

. Isolated Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) tear
. Isolated Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL) tear
. Isolated Posterolateral Corner (PLC) injury
. Combined PCL and PLC injuries
. Medial Collateral Ligament (MCL) tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated Anterior Cruciate Ligament (ACL) tear


Explanation

An increase in external rotation of >10 degrees at 30 degrees of flexion, which normalizes at 90 degrees of flexion, is diagnostic of an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. Combined PLC and PCL injuries show increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.

Question 1113

Topic: Knee Sports

A 45-year-old male feels a pop in the back of his knee while squatting. An MRI demonstrates a posterior root tear of the medial meniscus. What is the primary biomechanical consequence of this specific injury?

. It is equivalent to a total meniscectomy in altering contact pressures.
. It primarily causes increased posterior tibial translation.
. It decreases overall patellofemoral contact pressures.
. It prevents the progression of medial compartment osteoarthritis.
. It isolates the hoop stresses solely to the anterior horn.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It is equivalent to a total meniscectomy in altering contact pressures.


Explanation

A meniscal root tear completely disrupts the ability of the meniscus to convert axial loads into circumferential hoop stresses. Biomechanically, this results in peak contact pressures equivalent to a total meniscectomy, predisposing the knee to rapid joint degeneration.

Question 1114

Topic: Knee Sports
A 32-year-old male sustains an isolated, acute Grade III posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear in a dashboard injury. Nonoperative management is selected. Which of the following bracing strategies provides the best biomechanical environment for ligament healing?
. A dynamic brace that applies an anteriorly directed force to the posterior calf
. A hinged knee brace locked in 90 degrees of flexion
. A cylinder cast in 30 degrees of flexion
. A knee immobilizer strictly in full extension
. An unloader brace applying a valgus force

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A dynamic brace that applies an anteriorly directed force to the posterior calf


Explanation

A dynamic anterior drawer brace (e.g., Jack PCL brace) counteracts gravity and hamstring forces, holding the tibia in an anteriorly reduced position. This prevents the posterior sag that can lead to healing of the PCL in an elongated, incompetent position.

Question 1115

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old football player sustains a high-energy tackle. Exam reveals increased external rotation of the tibia at 30 degrees of knee flexion but symmetric rotation at 90 degrees compared to the uninjured side. Varus stress is positive at 30 degrees. Which of the following structures is definitively injured?

. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Posterolateral corner
. Medial collateral ligament
. Posteromedial corner

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

Increased external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion with symmetric rotation at 90 degrees indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If rotation was increased at both 30 and 90 degrees, it would indicate a combined PLC and PCL injury.

Question 1116

Topic: Knee Sports
A 16-year-old female gymnast presents with recurrent lateral patellar dislocations. MRI reveals a torn medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL). If reconstruction is planned, where is the precise anatomic femoral attachment (Schรถttle's point) of the MPFL?
. Anterior to the posterior femoral cortex line and distal to the posterior medial condyle
. Anterior to the posterior femoral cortex line and proximal to the posterior medial condyle
. Posterior to the posterior femoral cortex line and proximal to the posterior condyle
. Anterior to the posterior femoral cortex line and distal to the medial epicondyle
. Between the adductor tubercle and the medial epicondyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Between the adductor tubercle and the medial epicondyle


Explanation

The femoral footprint of the MPFL (Schรถttle's point) is located radiographically between the medial epicondyle and the adductor tubercle. It sits slightly anterior to the posterior femoral cortex extension line.

Question 1117

Topic: Knee Sports

A 35-year-old recreational basketball player reports catching and pain in his knee. MRI reveals a medial meniscal root tear. What are the biomechanical consequences of this injury if left untreated?

. Loss of meniscal hoop stresses leading to rapid articular cartilage degeneration
. Increased tension on the anterior cruciate ligament
. Decreased contact pressures in the medial compartment
. Posterolateral rotatory instability
. Medial collateral ligament attenuation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loss of meniscal hoop stresses leading to rapid articular cartilage degeneration


Explanation

A meniscal root tear biomechanically mimics a total meniscectomy by disrupting hoop stresses. This causes lateral extrusion of the meniscus and significantly increased contact pressures, leading to rapid osteoarthritis.

Question 1118

Topic: Knee Sports

A 20-year-old football lineman is diagnosed with a posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury. On physical examination, the posterior drawer test is performed. At what degree of knee flexion is the PCL the primary restraint to posterior tibial translation?

. 0 degrees
. 30 degrees
. 60 degrees
. 90 degrees
. 120 degrees

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 0 degrees


Explanation

The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL), particularly its anterolateral bundle, is the primary restraint to posterior tibial translation. This restraint is greatest and most easily tested at 90 degrees of knee flexion.

Question 1119

Topic: Knee Sports
A 28-year-old soccer player sustains a knee injury. MRI shows an isolated complete posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear. Examination reveals a grade III posterior sag, but the patient is asymptomatic with straight-ahead running. What is the most appropriate initial management?
. Early PCL reconstruction
. Protected weight-bearing in full extension for 2-4 weeks followed by quadriceps strengthening
. Immediate aggressive hamstring strengthening
. Primary open repair of the PCL
. High tibial osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Protected weight-bearing in full extension for 2-4 weeks followed by quadriceps strengthening


Explanation

Isolated PCL tears are generally treated nonoperatively with a brief period of immobilization in extension to reduce posterior tibial subluxation, followed by aggressive quadriceps strengthening. Hamstring strengthening is avoided initially as it exacerbates posterior tibial translation.

Question 1120

Topic: Knee Sports

A posterior root tear of the medial meniscus results in altered knee biomechanics that are most similar to which of the following conditions?

. Intact knee
. Total meniscectomy
. Partial meniscectomy
. Anterior cruciate ligament deficiency
. Posterior cruciate ligament deficiency

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intact knee


Explanation

A medial meniscus posterior root tear disrupts the crucial hoop stresses of the meniscus, causing it to extrude under physiological load. This effectively leaves the medial compartment functioning biomechanically as if a total meniscectomy had been performed.