This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Knee Sports. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1081
Topic: Knee Sports
The popliteus tendon inserts on the lateral femoral condyle. Relative to the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) insertion on the femur, where is the femoral footprint of the popliteus tendon located?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal and posterior
Explanation
The popliteus tendon originates on the lateral femoral condyle distal and anterior to the femoral origin of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL). This anatomical relationship is critical during posterolateral corner reconstruction.
Question 1082
Topic: Knee Sports
The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) is composed of two functional bundles named for their tibial insertion sites. Which of the following statements regarding the anteromedial (AM) bundle is correct?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It is tightest in full extension
Explanation
The anteromedial (AM) bundle of the ACL is tightest in flexion and is the primary restraint to anterior tibial translation. The posterolateral (PL) bundle is tightest in extension and primarily controls rotatory stability.
Question 1083
Topic: Knee Sports
A patient sustains an injury to the posterolateral corner of the knee. The popliteofibular ligament is identified as a critical stabilizer. From which structure does it anatomically originate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Lateral femoral epicondyle
Explanation
The popliteofibular ligament is a static stabilizer of the posterolateral corner. It originates from the musculotendinous junction of the popliteus and inserts onto the posteromedial aspect of the fibular styloid.
Question 1084
Topic: Knee Sports
The popliteus tendon is a critical component of the posterolateral corner of the knee. In relation to the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) footprint, where does the popliteus tendon insert on the lateral femoral condyle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior and inferior
Explanation
The femoral insertion of the popliteus tendon is located anterior and inferior to the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) origin on the lateral femoral condyle. Understanding this anatomy is essential for anatomic posterolateral corner reconstructions.
Question 1085
Topic: Knee Sports
The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) consists of two main functional bundles. During knee flexion, which bundle is tightest and what is its primary stabilizing function?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anteromedial bundle; resists varus rotation
Explanation
The anteromedial (AM) bundle of the ACL is tightest in knee flexion and provides the primary restraint to anterior tibial translation. The posterolateral (PL) bundle is tightest in extension and resists rotatory loads.
Question 1086
Topic: Knee Sports
In reconstructing the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee, identifying anatomic landmarks is critical. On the lateral femoral condyle, where is the popliteus tendon attachment located relative to the fibular collateral ligament (FCL) origin?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal and posterior
Explanation
On the lateral femoral condyle, the popliteus tendon inserts into a sulcus that is located distal and anterior to the origin of the fibular collateral ligament. This precise anatomical relationship is critical for isometric PLC reconstructions.
Question 1087
Topic: Knee Sports
During an anatomic reconstruction of the posterolateral corner of the knee, the surgeon must accurately identify the fibular insertion of the lateral collateral ligament (LCL). Where does the LCL insert relative to the popliteofibular ligament (PFL)?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior and distal to the PFL
Explanation
On the fibular head, the LCL inserts accurately into a footprint that is situated anterior and distal to the insertion of the popliteofibular ligament (PFL) and the biceps femoris tendon.
Question 1088
Topic: Knee Sports
A patient presents with isolated varus instability at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but the knee is stable to varus stress at 0 degrees. Which of the following structures is the primary restraint to varus stress at 30 degrees of knee flexion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterior cruciate ligament
Explanation
The fibular collateral ligament (LCL) is the primary restraint to varus stress at 30 degrees of knee flexion. Varus instability at both 0 and 30 degrees typically indicates combined LCL and cruciate ligament injury.
Question 1089
Topic: Knee Sports
An 18-year-old athlete sustains a multi-ligamentous knee injury, including the posterolateral corner (PLC). During reconstruction, the surgeon must identify the femoral footprint of the popliteus tendon. Where is this footprint located relative to the lateral collateral ligament (LCL) attachment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal and posterior
Explanation
On the lateral femoral condyle, the popliteus tendon footprint is located approximately 18.5 mm distal and anterior to the lateral epicondyle. The LCL attaches slightly proximal and posterior to the epicondyle. Correct anatomical placement is essential for restoring PLC biomechanics.
Question 1090
Topic: Knee Sports
A 28-year-old man sustains a dashboard injury to his knee during a motor vehicle collision. Examination reveals a positive posterior drawer test. The Dial test demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the uninjured side, but symmetrical external rotation at 90 degrees. Which structures are most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior cruciate ligament only
Explanation
An increase in external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion with normal rotation at 90 degrees is the classic physical examination finding for an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. Combined PLC and PCL injuries show increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.
Question 1091
Topic: Knee Sports
A 35-year-old patient involved in a motorcycle collision sustains a knee dislocation. After reduction, the patient has a foot drop and lacks sensation over the dorsum of the foot. Which of the following specific ligamentous injury patterns is most highly associated with this neurologic deficit?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated anterior cruciate ligament tear
Explanation
Common peroneal nerve injuries frequently accompany severe knee trauma, particularly those involving the posterolateral corner (PLC) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). The nerve is tethered at the fibular neck, making it highly vulnerable to traction during significant varus and hyperextension mechanisms.
Question 1092
Topic: Knee Sports
A 26-year-old male sustains an isolated Grade III PCL tear during a soccer match. He is initially treated conservatively but returns 9 months later with continued complaints. Which of the following is the most widely accepted absolute indication for PCL reconstruction in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Recurrent instability and 'giving way' during deceleration
Explanation
While the majority of isolated PCL tears are successfully treated nonoperatively, clear indications for reconstruction include persistent functional instability, combined ligamentous injuries, and symptomatic recurrent 'giving way', particularly during deceleration activities.
Question 1093
Topic: Knee Sports
You are evaluating a 23-year-old patient with a suspected knee injury following a wrestling match. The Dial test is performed. The patient has 20 degrees greater external rotation on the injured side at 30 degrees of flexion, and 25 degrees greater external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. What is the most accurate diagnosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament injury
Explanation
Increased external rotation of more than 10 degrees at 30 degrees of flexion indicates a posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. When this asymmetry persists or increases at 90 degrees of flexion, it signifies a combined PLC and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) injury.
Question 1094
Topic: Knee Sports
A 28-year-old man sustains a dashboard injury to his right knee. Physical examination demonstrates a positive posterior sag sign. Which of the following bundles of the primary injured ligament is tightest in knee flexion?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Anterolateral bundle
Explanation
The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is composed of the anterolateral (AL) and posteromedial (PM) bundles. The AL bundle is the larger of the two and is tightest in knee flexion, whereas the PM bundle is tightest in extension.
Question 1095
Topic: Knee Sports
A 24-year-old athlete undergoes evaluation for a suspected knee injury. Physical examination reveals a positive dial test at 30 degrees of flexion, but symmetric normal external rotation at 90 degrees. This finding indicates an isolated injury to which of the following structures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior cruciate ligament
Explanation
The dial test evaluates for posterolateral corner (PLC) and PCL injuries. Increased external rotation of >10 degrees compared to the contralateral side at 30 degrees of flexion, but normal rotation at 90 degrees, indicates an isolated injury to the PLC.
Question 1096
Topic: Knee Sports
Following an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, a patient has persistent rotational instability (positive pivot shift) despite a negative Lachman test. Radiographs show the femoral tunnel placed at the 12 o'clock position in the intercondylar notch. What is the functional consequence of this specific tunnel placement?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Restores anterior-posterior stability but fails to restore rotational stability
Explanation
Placing the femoral tunnel in a strictly vertical position (12 o'clock) during ACL reconstruction fails to restore normal knee kinematics. While it may limit anterior tibial translation, it poorly controls rotational instability, resulting in a persistent pivot shift.
Question 1097
Topic: Knee Sports
During reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee, anatomical landmarks are critical. In an isolated injury to the popliteofibular ligament, what is the expected primary physical exam finding?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increased varus laxity at 0 degrees of flexion
Explanation
The popliteofibular ligament is a primary restraint to external rotation. Injury to the PLC, including the popliteofibular ligament, typically presents with increased external tibial rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion.
Question 1098
Topic: Knee Sports
A 28-year-old male sustains a "dashboard injury" in a motor vehicle collision. Physical examination and MRI confirm an isolated Grade III posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) tear. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Hinged knee brace locked in extension for 2-4 weeks
Explanation
Isolated PCL injuries, even Grade III, have an excellent capacity for conservative healing. Initial management involves a hinged knee brace locked in full extension for 2 to 4 weeks to reduce posterior tibial sag, followed by progressive range of motion and quadriceps strengthening.
Question 1099
Topic: Knee Sports
A 21-year-old football player is struck on the anteromedial aspect of his proximal tibia. On physical examination, he demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation on the Dial test at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral knee, but normal external rotation at 90 degrees of knee flexion. Which structure(s) is/are most likely injured?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Isolated Posterior Cruciate Ligament (PCL)
Explanation
An isolated injury to the posterolateral corner (PLC) causes increased external rotation at 30 degrees of knee flexion but not at 90 degrees. A combined PLC and PCL injury would demonstrate increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees.
Question 1100
Topic: Knee Sports
During an endoscopic ACL reconstruction, an inexperienced surgeon places the femoral tunnel entirely too far anteriorly (high at the 12 o'clock position in the notch). What abnormal graft tension pattern will this non-anatomical placement cause?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tight in extension and loose in flexion
Explanation
A femoral tunnel placed too anteriorly (high in the notch) falls outside the isometric zone. As the knee moves from extension into flexion, the distance between the femoral and tibial tunnels increases, causing the graft to become tight in flexion and loose in extension, often leading to loss of flexion.
Test Yourself
Switch to an interactive, timed exam simulation to truly master this topic.