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Question 1121

Topic: Knee Sports

In medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL) reconstruction for recurrent patellofemoral instability, anatomic femoral tunnel placement is critical to avoid anisometry. Where is the anatomic femoral attachment of the MPFL located?

. Proximal to the adductor tubercle
. Distal to the adductor tubercle and proximal to the medial epicondyle
. Distal to the medial epicondyle
. Anterior to the medial epicondyle
. Posterior to the adductor tubercle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Proximal to the adductor tubercle


Explanation

The MPFL femoral origin is located in a bony sulcus between the medial epicondyle (which is distal) and the adductor tubercle (which is proximal). Non-anatomic placement, particularly proximal or anterior, can lead to severe graft tensioning issues during knee flexion.

Question 1122

Topic: Knee Sports
A 22-year-old sustains a KD III-M multiligament knee injury. Which of the following nerve injuries is most commonly associated with disruption of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee?
. Tibial nerve
. Deep peroneal nerve
. Common peroneal nerve
. Saphenous nerve
. Sural nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Common peroneal nerve


Explanation

The common peroneal nerve courses directly around the fibular neck and is highly susceptible to traction injuries during the varus and hyperextension mechanisms that typically rupture the posterolateral corner structures.

Question 1123

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old female soccer player sustains a noncontact twisting injury to her knee, feeling a "pop."

MRI confirms an isolated anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear. Which of the following is an established intrinsic anatomic risk factor for this injury?

. Increased intercondylar notch width
. Decreased intercondylar notch width
. Decreased posterior tibial slope
. Varus knee alignment
. Increased hamstring-to-quadriceps ratio

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased intercondylar notch width


Explanation

A decreased (narrow) intercondylar notch width is a well-established anatomic risk factor for ACL tears. Increased posterior tibial slope and a decreased hamstring-to-quadriceps strength ratio are also known risk factors.

Question 1124

Topic: Knee Sports

A 26-year-old rugby player presents with posterior knee pain and a positive posterior drawer test.

The dial test demonstrates 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion and 15 degrees of increased external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion compared to the contralateral side. Which structures are injured?

. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC)
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) and posterolateral corner (PLC)
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) and medial collateral ligament (MCL)
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and posterolateral corner (PLC)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)


Explanation

A dial test showing increased external rotation at both 30 and 90 degrees of knee flexion indicates a combined injury to the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) and the posterolateral corner (PLC). An isolated PLC injury would show asymmetry only at 30 degrees.

Question 1125

Topic: Knee Sports
A 17-year-old female experiences recurrent lateral patellar instability and fails conservative management. Surgery is planned to reconstruct the medial patellofemoral ligament (MPFL). During reconstruction, where should the femoral tunnel be placed anatomically to avoid non-isometric graft tension?
. Anterior to the medial epicondyle
. Between the medial epicondyle and adductor tubercle
. Proximal to the adductor tubercle
. Distal to the medial epicondyle
. On the anterior aspect of the medial femoral condyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Between the medial epicondyle and adductor tubercle


Explanation

The anatomic femoral attachment of the MPFL (often described radiographically by the Schöttle point) lies in a saddle-like depression between the medial epicondyle and the adductor tubercle. Accurate placement is critical to ensure isometry of the graft throughout knee flexion.

Question 1126

Topic: Knee Sports

Which bundle of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) serves as the primary restraint to posterior tibial translation at 90 degrees of knee flexion?

. Anterolateral bundle
. Posteromedial bundle
. Posterior oblique ligament
. Ligament of Wrisberg
. Ligament of Humphrey

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterolateral bundle


Explanation

The anterolateral bundle of the PCL is tightest in flexion and is the primary restraint to posterior translation at 90 degrees. The posteromedial bundle is tightest in extension.

Question 1127

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old football player sustains a valgus blow to the lateral aspect of his knee. Physical examination reveals medial joint line opening at 30 degrees of flexion but a stable knee in full extension. Which anatomical structure is the primary restraint being tested?

. Deep medial collateral ligament
. Posterior oblique ligament
. Superficial medial collateral ligament
. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Medial patellofemoral ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deep medial collateral ligament


Explanation

The superficial MCL is the primary restraint to valgus stress at 30 degrees of knee flexion. Stability in full extension indicates that the secondary stabilizers (like the posterior oblique ligament and posterior capsule) remain intact.

Question 1128

Topic: Knee Sports

Biomechanical studies have demonstrated that a medial meniscus posterior root tear alters knee joint kinematics in a manner functionally equivalent to which of the following conditions?

. A partial meniscectomy leaving a 3-mm peripheral rim
. An isolated posterior cruciate ligament tear
. A total medial meniscectomy
. An anterior cruciate ligament tear
. A superficial medial collateral ligament rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A partial meniscectomy leaving a 3-mm peripheral rim


Explanation

A complete tear of the medial meniscus posterior root abolishes hoop stresses within the meniscus, causing the meniscus to extrude. Biomechanically, this results in increased contact pressures equivalent to a total medial meniscectomy.

Question 1129

Topic: Knee Sports

A patient with knee instability is examined using the dial test. The examiner notes 15 degrees of increased external rotation of the affected limb compared to the normal limb at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but there is no side-to-side difference at 90 degrees of knee flexion. This finding strongly suggests an isolated injury to which structure?

. Anterior cruciate ligament
. Posterior cruciate ligament
. Posterolateral corner
. Superficial medial collateral ligament
. Popliteofibular ligament alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

An isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury presents with increased external rotation at 30 degrees of flexion but not at 90 degrees. If external rotation is increased at both 30 and 90 degrees, a combined PLC and PCL injury is present.

Question 1130

Topic: Knee Sports

Which component of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee is the primary restraint to external rotation of the tibia at 30 degrees of knee flexion?

. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
. Popliteofibular ligament
. Iliotibial band
. Biceps femoris tendon
. Fabellofibular ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)


Explanation

While the LCL is the primary restraint to varus stress, the popliteus complex (specifically the popliteofibular ligament and popliteus tendon) is the primary restraint to external tibial rotation.

Question 1131

Topic: Knee Sports

During an anatomic anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) reconstruction, failure to adequately recreate the posterolateral (PL) bundle will most likely result in a persistent deficit in which of the following biomechanical functions?

. Anterior translation at 90 degrees of flexion
. Varus stability near full extension
. Rotatory stability near full extension
. Posterior translation at 90 degrees of flexion
. Valgus stability at 30 degrees of flexion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior translation at 90 degrees of flexion


Explanation

The ACL consists of the anteromedial (AM) and posterolateral (PL) bundles. The PL bundle is tightest in extension and provides the primary restraint against rotatory loads, so failure to recreate it leads to persistent rotatory instability.

Question 1132

Topic: Knee Sports
A 22-year-old collegiate football player sustains a valgus blow to the knee. Physical examination reveals a grade III medial collateral ligament (MCL) sprain with significantly increased valgus laxity at both 0 and 30 degrees of knee flexion. This finding implies a concomitant injury to which of the following structures?
. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Posterior oblique ligament (POL)
. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
. Popliteus tendon
. Iliotibial band

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior oblique ligament (POL)


Explanation

Valgus laxity isolated to 30 degrees of flexion indicates a superficial MCL tear. Additional valgus laxity at 0 degrees of extension strongly implies concomitant injury to the posterior oblique ligament (POL) and the posteromedial capsule.

Question 1133

Topic: Knee Sports

During the evaluation of a suspected posterolateral corner (PLC) knee injury, the dial test is performed. An increase in external rotation of 15 degrees at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but no asymmetry at 90 degrees of flexion, most strongly suggests which of the following injury patterns?

. Isolated PCL tear
. Combined PCL and PLC tear
. Isolated PLC tear
. Isolated ACL tear
. Combined ACL and PLC tear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated PCL tear


Explanation

An increase in external rotation of greater than 10-15 degrees at 30 degrees of flexion compared to the contralateral side indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If the asymmetry persists or increases at 90 degrees, it indicates a combined PCL and PLC injury.

Question 1134

Topic: Knee Sports

A 24-year-old skier sustains a twisting injury to the knee. A plain radiograph is shown in Figure 1.

The image reveals an avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau (Segond fracture). This pathognomonic finding is most strongly associated with injury to which of the following structures?

. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
. Medial collateral ligament (MCL)
. Popliteus tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)


Explanation

A Segond fracture is a cortical avulsion of the anterolateral capsular structures from the lateral tibial plateau. It is highly associated (75-100%) with an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear.

Question 1135

Topic: Knee Sports

A patient presents with knee pain and instability after a dashboard injury. The dial test shows 15 degrees of increased external rotation of the tibia at 30 degrees of knee flexion compared to the contralateral side, but symmetric external rotation at 90 degrees. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury
. Combined ACL and PLC injury
. Combined PCL and PLC injury
. Isolated PCL injury
. Isolated MCL injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury


Explanation

The dial test with increased external rotation at 30 degrees but not 90 degrees indicates an isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury. If external rotation is increased at both 30 and 90 degrees, it suggests a combined PCL and PLC injury.

Question 1136

Topic: Knee Sports

During surgical reconstruction of the posterolateral corner (PLC) of the knee, the surgeon must reconstruct the primary static stabilizer to varus stress. Which structure inserts on the lateral aspect of the fibular head, anterior to the popliteofibular ligament?

. Biceps femoris tendon
. Iliotibial band
. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
. Popliteus tendon
. Lateral head of gastrocnemius

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Biceps femoris tendon


Explanation

The lateral collateral ligament (LCL) is the primary static stabilizer to varus stress. It originates on the lateral femoral epicondyle and inserts on the lateral aspect of the fibular head, anterior to the popliteofibular ligament insertion.

Question 1137

Topic: Knee Sports

The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is composed of two primary bundles. Which statement accurately describes the tensioning pattern of the larger bundle during normal knee range of motion?

. The anterolateral bundle is tight in flexion
. The anterolateral bundle is tight in extension
. The posteromedial bundle is tight in flexion
. Both bundles maintain constant tension throughout range of motion
. The anterolateral bundle functions strictly as a secondary stabilizer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The anterolateral bundle is tight in flexion


Explanation

The PCL consists of the larger anterolateral bundle (ALB) and smaller posteromedial bundle (PMB). The ALB is predominantly tight in knee flexion, while the PMB is tight in knee extension.

Question 1138

Topic: Knee Sports

A 22-year-old collegiate football player sustains a direct blow to the anteromedial aspect of his knee. Examination reveals a positive dial test at 30 degrees of knee flexion, but symmetrical external rotation at 90 degrees of flexion. Which structural injury is most consistent with these physical examination findings?

. Isolated anterior cruciate ligament tear
. Isolated posterior cruciate ligament tear
. Isolated posterolateral corner injury
. Isolated medial collateral ligament tear
. Combined posterior cruciate ligament and posterolateral corner injury

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Isolated anterior cruciate ligament tear


Explanation

An isolated posterolateral corner (PLC) injury results in increased external rotation (a positive dial test) at 30 degrees of flexion but normal rotation at 90 degrees. If the dial test is positive at both 30 and 90 degrees, a combined PLC and PCL injury is present.

Question 1139

Topic: Knee Sports

In ACL reconstruction utilizing a quadrupled hamstring graft and a cortical suspension button (e.g., Endobutton) for femoral fixation, the "bungee cord effect" and "windshield wiper effect" are established mechanisms that most commonly lead to which of the following postoperative radiographic findings?

. Premature distal femoral physeal closure
. Development of patella baja
. Femoral and tibial tunnel widening
. Heterotopic ossification in the intercondylar notch
. Sclerosis of the medial femoral condyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Premature distal femoral physeal closure


Explanation

Cortical suspensory fixation techniques place the fixation point far from the joint line, allowing for micromotion of the graft within the tunnel (the bungee cord and windshield wiper effects). This micromotion is a primary cause of postoperative tunnel widening.

Question 1140

Topic: Knee Sports

A 28-year-old recreational skier sustains an acute ACL tear. Concurrent injury to the posterior horn of the medial meniscus root is identified on preoperative MRI. If the medial meniscus root tear is left completely untreated at the time of ACL reconstruction, the knee biomechanics will most closely resemble which of the following states?

. A knee with a completely intact functioning meniscus
. A knee with a total medial meniscectomy
. A knee with an isolated bucket-handle meniscal tear
. A knee with an isolated posterior cruciate ligament deficiency
. A knee with a partial lateral meniscectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A knee with a completely intact functioning meniscus


Explanation

A posterior root tear of the medial meniscus completely disrupts the meniscal hoop stresses, causing extrusion of the meniscus under load. Biomechanically, this is equivalent to a total medial meniscectomy, predisposing the joint to rapid compartmental osteoarthritis.