Question 1601
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)Correct Answer & Explanation
. Mortality
Practice Set 81 of 326
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Mortality
Figure 125 is the anteroposterior knee radiograph of a 65-year-old man who has been treated for knee pain for 6 years. His pain is constant and is worse when walking up and down stairs and when sitting for a prolonged period. He has medial joint line tenderness and a positive patellofemoral grind test finding. His knee is stable to varus and valgus stress. A Lachman test result is 2+. He had a trial of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications with good relief until 4 months ago. Physical therapy has provided minimal relief, and he has undergone a series of intra-articular injections with corticosteroids. The last 2 injections each provided 1 week of pain relief. What is the most appropriate next treatment option?
. Total knee arthroplasty (TKA)
Which of the following is considered a disadvantage of knee disarticulation when compared with transfemoral amputation?
. Asymmetry of the prosthetic knee joint
. volumetric wear.
. Noncircumferential metaphyseal patch coating
. Anterior and inferior
. Use of metal-backed patellar components
A year-old man with a history of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease underwent a right hip resurfacing 3 years ago with no perioperative complications. Hip pain has developed gradually during the last 4 months. Radiographs show no evidence of fixation loosening or any adverse changes at the femoral neck. No periarticular osteolysis is evident. What is the most appropriate management of this condition?
. Serum cobalt and chromium levels and metal-reduction MRI scan
. minimal weight bearing and observation.
. large cementless cup with bone grafting of defects.
He reports that he had no problems with the knee until 6 weeks ago when he noted the gradual onset of pain following a colonoscopy. Examination reveals a painful, swollen knee. Knee aspiration reveals a WBC count of 40,000/mm3. Management should consist of

. suppressive antibiotics.
. Ceramic femoral head-on-ceramic socket
. Debridement of the wound, explant of the total hip, placement of a spacer, and administration of intravenous antibiotics
. Polar contact should exceed equatorial contact.
. Moderate
. Less than 50%
Figures 24a and 24b are the radiographs of a 7-year-old boy who fell off the monkey bars and has a closed injury. His hand appears warm and well perfused with an absent radial pulse. What is the best initial treatment?
. Immediate open reduction with an anterior approach
A 23-year-old man is involved in a motor vehicle accident. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 29a, and axial and sagittal CT scans are shown in Figures 29b and 29c. Neurologic examination shows 1/5 strength of his quadriceps and iliopsoas on the right, with 1/5 quadriceps function on the left. Definitive treatment of his injury should consist of Review Topic

. anterior corpectomy with interbody strut.
. May undergo a phase change that markedly reduces wear resistance
A prospective, randomized controlled trial of 150 patients undergoing total hip arthroplasty is performed to test whether repair of the capsule during a posterior approach reduces post-operative dislocations in the first three months. The study found no difference in dislocation rate if the capsule was repaired versus not repaired (p = .34). Subsequently, a multicenter follow-up study of 2000 patients showed that repairing the capsule led to a decreased dislocation rate in the first three months (p = .03). Assuming the second study reflects reality, which of the following errors occurred in the first study?
. Type-II error