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Question 1621

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 21 shows the radiograph of a 32-year-old patient with right hip pain that has failed to respond to nonsurgical management. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment at this time?
. Femoral derotational osteotomy
. Total hip arthroplasty
. Arthrodesis
. Surgical dislocation of the hip
. Periacetabular osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Periacetabular osteotomy


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph reveals developmental dysplasia of both hips. The patient has classic anterolateral undercoverage of the femoral head on the right side as demonstrated by a high acetabular index (measured at 27 degrees). Anterior undercoverage can be determined by drawing the marking for the anterior wall that fails to overlap the femoral head in this patient. Currently in North America, the most accepted surgical management for symptomatic dysplasia of the hip with good joint space is a Bernese (Ganz) periacetabular osteotomy. Surgical dislocation of the hip and femoroacetabular osteoplasty may be considered for patients with symptomatic femoroacetabular impingement of the hip.

Question 1622

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
An orthopaedic surgeon who is the developer of a knee arthroplasty system is discussing treatment options with a patient who has tricompartmental osteoarthritis. As a part of this discussion, the orthopaedic surgeon has an obligation to disclose
. The name of the manufacturer
. The manufacturer’s potential liability
. The physician’s clinical performance
. The physician’s materials testing data
. Any royalties the physician receives from the manufacturer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Any royalties the physician receives from the manufacturer


Explanation

This topic is listed in Appendix D of the Code of Ethics for Orthopaedic Surgeons/American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons under sections III B and C. III. Conflicts of Interest B. Where there are financial interests involved in the ownership of a pharmacy, rehabilitation center, imaging equipment, surgery center, or health care facility where the orthopaedic surgeon’s financial interest is not immediately obvious, the orthopaedic surgeon must disclose that financial interest to the patient and to colleagues. C. When an orthopaedic surgeon receives anything of value, including royalties, from a manufacturer, the orthopaedic surgeon must disclose this fact to the patient and to colleagues. It is unethical for an orthopaedic surgeon to receive compensation (excluding royalties) from a manufacturer for using a particular device or medication. Reimbursement for administrative costs in conducting or participating in a scientifically sound research trial is acceptable.

Question 1623

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 77-year-old woman with osteoporosis who underwent cemented total hip arthroplasty 12 years ago fell down a flight of stairs. A radiograph is shown in Figure 15. What is the best option for treating this fracture?
. Revision to a long stem prosthesis with impaction grafting
. Revision to a long stem prosthesis, bypassing the defect
. Proximal femoral allograft reconstruction
. Cable plate fixation with cortical strut graft augmentation
. Cable fixation alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cable plate fixation with cortical strut graft augmentation


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Type I fractures are trochanteric fractures usually secondary to osteolysis. Type II fractures are located around the stem. Type III fractures are distal to the stem. If the fracture and prosthesis are stable, the fracture can be treated nonsurgically. If the fracture is unstable, the stability of the prosthesis should be assessed. If the prosthesis is unstable (type IIB), treatment should consist of revision to a long stem prosthesis that bypasses the fracture by two cortical diameters. If, as in this patient, the prosthesis is not loose (type IIA), open reduction and internal fixation is the appropriate option. Proximal femoral allograft is appropriate for type IIIC fractures in which the proximal bone is significantly compromised and the femoral component is loose.

Question 1624

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A 77-year-old man who underwent right total knee replacement surgery 2.5 years ago has had knee pain since surgery. The pain is diffuse, constant, and made worse with activity. He notes warmth and swelling in his knee. Examination shows a well-healed incision, no erythema, moderate warmth, synovitis, and an effusion. The knee is stable and has an arc of flexion between 3° and 120°. Radiographs show well-fixed and well-aligned implants. What is the most appropriate initial treatment?
. Knee aspiration for culture
. CT of the knee to assess implant rotation
. Indium-111 leukocyte/technetium-99m sulfur colloid scan of the knee
. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) laboratory studies

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) laboratory studies


Explanation

DISCUSSION: This patient's history and physical findings are concerning for deep infection. Inflammatory markers, including ESR and CRP, should be obtained first. If the levels are elevated, knee aspiration should be performed for the synovial cell count and culture. A bone scan is not indicated in an initial investigation for deep infection; it is rarely helpful and is not cost-effective. CT to assess implant rotation is an appropriate investigation for knee pain when the clinical scenario is not suspicious for a deep infection and when infection has been excluded.

Question 1625

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

The Musculoskeletal Infection Society (MSIS) has adopted a definition of periprosthetic joint infection (PJI). This definition includes 2 major criteria and 5 minor criteria. Infection is present if 1 of 2 major criterions or 3 of 5 minor criterions are met. These criterions are

. major: 3 positive cultures, gross purulence. Minor: elevated C-reactive protein (CRP) level and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), elevated synovial white blood cell (WBC) count, elevated synovial neutrophil count, elevated systemic WBC count, dr
. major: draining sinus and elevated synovial WBC count. Minor: elevated CRP and ESR, positive frozen section, purulence at surgery, elevated systemic WBC count, febrile episodes, and a single positive culture from periprosthetic tissue.
. major: gross purulence at surgery and a draining sinus. Minor: 2 positive cultures from periprosthetic tissues, an elevated synovial WBC count, elevated synovial neutrophil percentage, elevated CRP and ESR, febrile episodes, and an elevated systemic
. major: a draining sinus communicating with the joint and 2 positive cultures with the same organism. Minor: elevated synovial WBC count, elevated synovial neutrophil percentage, elevated CRP and ESR, increased WBCs per high-power field on frozen sec

Correct Answer & Explanation

. major: 3 positive cultures, gross purulence. Minor: elevated C-reactive protein (CRP) level and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), elevated synovial white blood cell (WBC) count, elevated synovial neutrophil count, elevated systemic WBC count, dr


Explanation

DISCUSSIONIn 2014, the MSIS published its revised PJI definition for clinical and research use. If 1 of 2 major criterions is met (phenotypically identical organisms obtained from 2 separate cultures or a draining sinus tract), then PJI is diagnosed. Alternatively, if 3 of 5 minor criterions are met, PJI is diagnosed.

Question 1626

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figures 1 and 2 demonstrate the radiographs obtained from a woman with end-stage debilitating osteoarthritis of the right hip. She is contemplating total hip arthroplasty (THA). She has a history of right hip dysplasia and underwent hip osteotomy as an adolescent. Over the years, nonsurgical treatment, including weight loss, activity modifications, and intra-articular injections, has failed. Her infection work-up reveals laboratory findings within defined limits. Which bearing surface is contraindicated for this patient?
. Ceramic-on-ceramic
. Ceramic-on-highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXPE)
. Metal-on-HXPE
. Metal-on-metal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metal-on-metal


Explanation

DISCUSSION: THA has proven durable and reliable for pain relief and improving function for patients with end-stage arthritis. Appropriate bearing selection is critical to minimize wear and hip complications. A metal-on-metal articulation is associated with excellent wear rates in vitro. However, local soft-tissue reactions, pseudotumors, and potential systemic reactions including renal failure, cardiomyopathy, carcinogenesis, and potential teratogenesis with potential transfer of metal ions across the placental barrier make metal-on-metal bearings less desirable and relatively contraindicated for younger women of child-bearing age.

Question 1627

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following methodologies has been proven to be effective in reducing the use of homologous blood transfusion following total hip arthroplasty (THA)?
. Type of postoperative anticoagulation
. Preoperative autologous blood donation
. General anesthesia
. Cementless fixation of the components
. The use of wound drains

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Preoperative autologous blood donation


Explanation

DISCUSSION: A variety of methodologies have been used to decrease the need for homologous blood transfusions following THA. Some of the effective strategies include preoperative donation of autologous units, intraoperative salvage and recycling, preoperative injection of erythropoietin, and regional anesthesia. Cementless fixation and use of wound drains have been shown to increase the blood loss with THA. REFERENCES: Huo MH, Paly WL, Keggi KJ: Effect of preoperative autologous blood donation and intraoperative and postoperative blood recovery on homologous blood transfusion requirement in cementless total hip replacement operation. J Am Coll Surg 1995;180:561-567. Bierbaum BE, Callaghan JJ, Galante JO, Rubash HE, Tooms RE, Welch RB: An analysis of blood management in patients having a total hip or knee arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:2-10. Ritter MA, Keating EM, Faris PM: Closed wound drainage in total hip or total knee replacement: A prospective, randomized study. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1994;76:35-38.

Question 1628

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figures below represent the radiographs obtained from a 37-year-old man with severe right knee pain. He has a history of prior tibial osteotomy for adolescent tibia vara but notes residual bowing of his legs. On examination, he is 5'8" tall and weighs 322 pounds. He has a waddling gait with a bilateral varus thrust and 20° varus deformity of both legs. His right knee range of motion is 0° to 120° with a fixed varus deformity. What is the best next step?
. Total knee arthroplasty with standard components
. Correction of tibial deformity with osteotomy and nonsurgical management of the osteoarthritis
. Arthrodesis with a long antegrade nail
. Total knee arthroplasty with a constrained device

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Total knee arthroplasty with a constrained device


Explanation

DISCUSSION: This patient has severe, uncorrectable varus deformity and pain from end-stage osteoarthritis secondary to prior adolescent tibia vara. Although he is young to consider arthroplasty, this option is likely to give him the most functional limb, compared with arthrodesis with a long antegrade nail. During arthroplasty surgery, his knee will likely require extensive medial release to achieve anatomic limb alignment. Standard components in total knee arthroplasty likely would result in lateral instability, so this option is not the best answer. The best choice is total knee arthroplasty with a constrained device, which adds constraint to the knee to provide balance.

Question 1629

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 8 shows the radiograph of a 76-year-old man who has knee pain and swelling. History reveals that he underwent total knee arthroplasty 18 years ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Loose femoral component
. Loose tibial component
. Particle-mediated osteolysis
. Polyethylene failure
. Infection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Polyethylene failure


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiograph reveals complete loss of joint space with particulate metal debris consistent with total polyethylene failure and metal-on-metal articulation. The components appear to be well fixed and minimal osteolysis is evident.

Question 1630

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Which of the following is considered a major characteristic of hyaluronate?
. Artificial compound used in improving joint reactive force friction
. Backbone of the proteoglycan aggregate
. Made up of chondroitin sulfate and glucosamine
. Primarily made up of water molecules in its protein matrix
. Key building block of collagen

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Backbone of the proteoglycan aggregate


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Hyaluronate is a naturally occurring compound that is the backbone of the central core of the proteoglycan aggregate. Hyaluronate forms the base or central core of the aggregate on which a link protein binds a protein core.

Question 1631

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

You are staffing the prison clinic in a large public hospital when a 55-year-old African American male presents complaining of severe right hip pain. His pain has been ongoing for the past five years and limits his ambulation. He has never used medications for pain control or physical therapy. A radiograph is shown in figure

. When formulating his treatment plan, it is important to:
. Guarantee the success of total hip arthroplasty
. Recommend simultaneous bilateral total hip arthroplasty
. Understand the role of implicit bias as a determinant of health care delivery disparity
. Request the patient reveal the reason for his incarceration
. Suggest referral to a pain management clinic

Correct Answer & Explanation

. When formulating his treatment plan, it is important to:


Explanation

The patient is an African American male prisoner with symptomatic right hip osteoarthritis. When formulating a treatment plan, it is important to understand the role of physician implicit bias in delivery of care and in creating disparities inhealthcare delivery.Physician bias, prejudice, discrimination, and clinical uncertainty are all factors that contribute to health care disparities in the United States. Implicit and explicit attitudes are cognitive traits that influence physician delivery of care, and sometimes these attitudes do not perfectly correspond. It is important for a physician to understand that his implicit attitudes about a patient may unintentionally influence care despite his explicit attitudes. Physicians should be aware of their implicit biases in order to provide more effective decision-making and quality of care.Stone et al. write about the issue of culturally competent delivery of care and the avoidance of unconscious bias in medical decision making. They argue that because unconscious stereotypes and prejudices can trigger biased medical decisions against specific groups, leading to the creation of differential diagnoses, disparities in treatment, and causing minorities to feel uncomfortable with seeking or complying with treatment plans. The authors suggest the integration of cultural competency training into medical education in order to help understand the perspective of the minority group patient.Sabin et. al. compared the implicit and explicit biases of physicians with respect to race, gender, and age. They found that medical doctors showed an implicit bias of preferentially caring for White Americans relative to Black Americans, independent of the doctors’ self-report (explicit biases). Doctors'implicit biases exceeded their explicit biases in all race groups studied, except for African American physicians, who did not show an implicit bias toward patients.Figure A demonstrates an AP pelvis x-ray with severe arthrosis of the right hip. The left hip demonstrates moderate disease.Incorrect Answers:

Question 1632

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 1 shows the radiograph obtained from a 54-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis who has thumb pain and dysfunction. Nonsurgical treatment, including splinting, oral NSAIDs, activity modification, and steroid injections, has failed. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?
. Thumb carpometacarpal (CMC) arthroplasty with ligament suspensionplasty
. Thumb CMC and thumb metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint fusion
. Thumb CMC arthroplasty with ligament suspensionplasty and thumb MCP joint stabilization
. Trapezial resection and distraction arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thumb CMC arthroplasty with ligament suspensionplasty and thumb MCP joint stabilization


Explanation

EXPLANATION: Various options exist to treat thumb CMC arthritis: trapezial resection alone, trapezial resection with ligament suspensionplasty or tendon interposition, trapezial resection with both ligament suspensionplasty and tendon interposition, CMC fusion, and CMC replacement. MCP hyperextension can develop in long-standing CMC arthritis, contributing to CMC instability as well as thumb pain and weakness. In patients with concomitant MCP hyperextension that exceeds 30°, correction of the deformity of the MCP joint must also be addressed and can be done with MCP capsulodesis, extensor pollicis brevis tendon transfer, or MCP fusion. Fusion of both the thumb CMC and MP joints is not recommended as this would result in marked stiffness and dysfunction.

Question 1633

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
At the time of the revision surgery shown in Figure 14, the acetabular component was found to be stable. Polyethylene exchange with a standard ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene liner and grafting was performed. The patient is at significantly increased risk for
. loosening of the femoral component.
. loosening of the acetabular component.
. prosthetic hip dislocation.
. rapid wear of the polyethylene.
. continued expansion of the lytic defects.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. prosthetic hip dislocation.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Maloney and associates reported a 35% increased risk of pelvic osteolysis after total hip arthroplasty with a porous-coated acetabular component without cement. All components were stable at the time of revision. Only liners were exchanged and debridement of the granuloma with or without bone graft was performed. No defects progressed and one third of the lesions were no longer visible on radiographs, regardless of bone grafting. Unfortunately, despite the technical ease of many of these types of revisions, the dislocation rate for these cases is significant. Precautions should be taken postoperatively, and patients should be educated about this risk preoperatively.

Question 1634

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Treatment of a cruciate-retaining total knee that is unstable in flexion is best accomplished by
. revising the implant to a posterior stabilized device.
. revising the implant with a thinner polyethylene insert.
. revising the implant with a larger femoral component.
. limiting flexion to only 90°.
. using quadriceps conditioning exercises and a derotation brace.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. revising the implant to a posterior stabilized device.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Pagnano and associates revised 25 painful primary posterior cruciate-retaining total knee arthroplasties for flexion instability. The patients shared typical clinical presentations that included a sense of instability without frank giving way, recurrent knee joint effusion, soft-tissue tenderness involving the pes anserine tendons and the retinacular tissue, posterior instability of 2+ or 3+ with a posterior drawer or a posterior sag sign at 90° of flexion, and above-average motion of the total knee arthroplasty. Twenty-two of the knee replacements were revised to posterior stabilized implants, and three underwent tibial polyethylene liner exchange only. Nineteen of the 22 knee replacements revised to a posterior stabilized implant showed marked improvement after the revision surgery. Only one of the three knee replacements that underwent tibial polyethylene exchange was improved. Flexion instability can be a cause of persistent pain and functional impairment after posterior cruciate-retaining total knee arthroplasty. Revision surgery that focuses on balancing the flexion and extension spaces, in conjunction with a posterior stabilized knee implant, seems to be a reliable treatment for symptomatic flexion instability after posterior cruciate-retaining total knee arthroplasty. REFERENCE: Pagnano MW, Hanssen AD, Lewallen DG, Stuart MJ: Flexion instability after primary posterior cruciate-retaining total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1998;356:39-46.

Question 1635

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 55-year-old woman who underwent a left total hip arthroplasty 8 months ago using a modified Hardinger approach reports a persistent painless limp. Examination reveals that when she is not using a cane, she lurches to the left during weight bearing on the left lower extremity. An AP radiograph is shown in Figure 29. Which of the following hip muscle groups should be strengthened to improve the gait abnormality?
. External rotators
. Extensors
. Abductors
. Flexors
. Adductors

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Abductors


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The modified Hardinger approach includes a partial anterior trochanteric osteotomy creating a trochanteric wafer (as seen on the radiograph) that is displaced anterior and medial in continuity with the gluteus medius and vastus lateralis. Failure of abductor reattachment, migration of the trochanter, nonunion of the osteotomy site, and excessive splitting of the gluteus medius muscle causing injury to the inferior branch of the superior gluteal nerve can result in weakness of the abductor mechanism. Abductor strength should be evaluated with the patient lying on the opposite side and elevating the affected limb. Although slight weakness may manifest itself as a limp only after prolonged muscular activity, significant weakness results in a constant limp without associated discomfort. REFERENCES: Morrey BF (ed): Joint Replacement Arthroplasty. New York, NY, Churchill Livingstone, 1991, pp 512-526. Kasser JR (ed): Orthopedic Knowledge Update 5. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1996, pp 389-426.

Question 1636

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A surgeon contemplates performing a hemiarthroplasty (HA) or total hip arthroplasty (THA) for an active, community ambulating 70-year-old female with a displaced femoral neck fracture. Which of the following is true for these options?

. There is no significant difference in operative time when using cemented stems compared with uncemented stems
. Comparing HA to THA, there is no difference in blood loss
. Longer term outcomes are better with HA
. Bipolar HA performed through a direct anterior or lateral approach leads to equivalent patient outcomes as THA
. Perioperative complication rate is greater after THA than bipolar HA

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Perioperative complication rate is greater after THA than bipolar HA


Explanation

THA has a higher perioperative complication rate than HA.There are a few differences between THA and HA performed in the setting of displaced FNF. THA has a higher dislocation rate, greater blood loss, requires a larger exposure than HA, and the operation is longer. HA often requires reoperation because of progressive acetabular erosion. Patient outcomes and function are greater following THA than HA.Florschultz et al. reviewed current management of FNF. They concluded that CRIF / ORIF is indicated for displaced femoral neck fractures in younger individuals, select active elderly, and medically unfit patients. HA is indicated for lower demand ambulatory older patients. THA is indicated for the active elderly and those with preexisting acetabular disease.Avery et al. reviewed 7-10 year results of an RCT comparing THA with HA. More HA patients had died during follow-up. All surviving patients had polyethylene wear (THA) and acetabular erosion (HA). They concluded that there was lower mortality and a trend towards superior function in patients with a THA in the medium term.Hedbeck et al. performed a RCT comparing HA and THA. At 4 years, there was improved function and quality of life with THA. They recommend THA in elderly, lucid patients with a displaced FNF.Incorrect Answers:

Question 1637

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Dislocation following primary total hip arthroplasty is more likely to occur in which of the following situations?
. Women rather than men
. Younger patients rather than older patients
. Ceramic-on-polyethylene bearings rather than cobalt-chromium on polyethylene bearings
. Cemented rather than cementless femoral components
. Metal-on-polyethylene rather than metal-on-metal bearings of the same diameter

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Women rather than men


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Dislocation following total hip arthroplasty is twice as common in women than in men. It is more likely to occur in older patients. There is no clear association between dislocation and the method of fixation or the type of bearing, so long as the bearing diameter is the same. REFERENCE: Berry DJ: Dislocation, in Steinberg ME (ed): Revision Total Hip Arthroplasty. Philadelphia, PA, 1999, pp 463-482.

Question 1638

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
The stiffness of a 16-mm femoral stem is mostly influenced by the
. elastic modulus of the material.
. surface coating or treatment.
. diameter of the femoral stem.
. length of the femoral stem.
. ultimate tensile strength.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. diameter of the femoral stem.


Explanation

The stiffness is most influenced by the geometry, in particular the diameter of the stem. The bending rigidity increases to the fourth power of the radius. The elastic modulus of the material increases as a direct linear relationship. The surface coating does not affect the bending rigidity greatly unless it increases the diameter significantly.

Question 1639

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old male presents with groin pain and a palpable mass 5 years after receiving a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty using a large-diameter cobalt-chromium femoral head. Serum metal ions show significantly elevated cobalt and normal chromium levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Infection (PJI)
. Polyethylene wear
. Trunnionosis (mechanically assisted crevice corrosion)
. Edge loading of the acetabular component
. Third-body wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Infection (PJI)


Explanation

Elevated cobalt out of proportion to chromium in a patient with a metal-on-polyethylene bearing indicates mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (trunnionosis) at the modular head-neck junction. Metal-on-metal bearing wear typically produces elevated levels of both cobalt and chromium. Large diameter metal heads increase the torsional forces at the trunnion, predisposing to this complication, known as adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR) or ALVAL.

Question 1640

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 55-year-old male complains of a loud 'squeaking' noise coming from his hip 3 years after a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty. He is otherwise asymptomatic. Radiographs show a well-fixed implant. Which of the following is the most likely primary etiology of this phenomenon?

. Third-body wear from retained cement debris
. Galvanic corrosion at the head-neck junction
. Stripe wear and edge loading due to component malposition
. Fracture of the ceramic liner
. Allergic reaction to the titanium stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Third-body wear from retained cement debris


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is heavily associated with edge loading, which typically occurs due to component malposition (e.g., increased acetabular anteversion/inclination or loss of femoral offset). Edge loading leads to stripe wear on the ceramic head, altering fluid film lubrication and generating the audible squeak. It is generally not caused by galvanic corrosion or cement debris.