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Question 1581

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
  • A 45-year-old man sustains the shoulder injury shown in the radiographs in Figure 55a and 55b and the CT scan in Figures 55c and 55d. Management should consist of
. a sling and swathe, with pendulum exercises in 10 days
. open reduction and internal fixation through an anterior approach
. open reduction and internal fixation through a posterior approach
. immobilization with a splint in 45 degrees of abduction for 6 weeks
. arthroscopically assisted reduction and percutaneous screw fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a sling and swathe, with pendulum exercises in 10 days


Explanation

Displaced intra-articular fractures of the glenoid fossa, as in this case, are best treated with open reduction and internal fixation through a posterior approach. ORIF through an anterior approach is very difficult and is not recommended. Significant disabilities are seen if these fractures are treated conservatively including chronic instability and DJD..............................................................

Question 1582

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Radiographs show a morbidly obese man who underwent left total hip replacement 7 years ago and did well, with no symptoms prior to the current presentation. He recently rose from a seated position and felt a pop in the hip, with immediate pain and inability to bear weight. Any pressure on the left foot now produces a painful, grinding sensation with loss of left hip stability. What is the best next step?
. Revision of the acetabular implant to a constrained bearing with modular exchange of the femoral head and neck
. Revision of the acetabular and femoral implants
. Retention of the acetabular implant with modular exchange of the femoral head and neck
. Revision of the femoral component alone with a new ceramic head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision of the acetabular and femoral implants


Explanation

The modular femoral stem has fractured. Revision of the acetabular implant is appropriate because of the potential for damage to the existing cup from metal debris and femoral implant contact and to convert from a metal-on-metal articulation. Retention of the femoral stem is not recommended because of the concern for failure with only a neck exchange. Revision of both components is necessary.

Question 1583

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Osteolysis after total knee arthroplasty can be minimized through prosthetic design features such as
. modular polyethylene inserts.
. use of tibial posts on the tibial insert.
. monolithic metal-backed tibial components.
. metal-backed patellar components.
. cementless tibial implants.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. monolithic metal-backed tibial components.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The incidence of osteolysis is minimal in studies reporting the use of all polyethylene or monolithic metal-backed tibial components. Osteolysis has been reported in patients with total knee arthroplasties using cementless implants with modular components. Micromotion between the tibial tray and the polyethylene results in backside wear, leading to osteolysis. Osteolysis also has been reported in cemented posterior cruciate-substituting modular components. O’Rourke and associates reported a 16% incidence of osteolysis in patients with a posterior stabilized implant because of the use of modular polyethylene and the subsequent abrasive wear. Oxidation of the polyethylene that is the result of the method of sterilization and shelf life has also been implicated in the high incidence of osteolysis, along with patient factors such as activity level and weight. REFERENCE: O’Rourke M, Callaghan J, Goetz D, Sullivan P, Johnson R: Osteolysis associated with a cemented modular posterior cruciate substituting total knee design. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2002;84:1362-1371.

Question 1584

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figures below depict the AP and lateral radiographs obtained from a 64-year-old man with long-standing right knee osteoarthritis and pain that is unresponsive to nonsurgical treatment. The patient undergoes navigated cruciate-retaining right total knee arthroplasty. After surgery, this patient continues to experience pain and swelling of the knee with recurrent effusions. He returns to the office reporting continued pain 2 years after surgery. He describes instability, particularly when descending stairs. On examination, range of motion of 0° to 120° is observed, with no extensor lag. Slope of the tibial component is 7°. The knee is stable to varus and valgus stress in extension, but flexion instability is present in both the anterior-posterior direction and the varus-valgus direction. Bracing leads to a slight decrease in symptoms but is not well tolerated. Isokinetic testing demonstrates decreased knee extension velocity at mid push. Radiographs demonstrate well-aligned and fixed knee implants. An infection work-up is negative. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention at this time?
. Tibial polyethylene exchange
. Revision of the femoral and tibial components and conversion to a posterior stabilized insert
. Revision of the femoral and tibial components to a constrained rotating hinge prosthesis
. Isolated femoral component revision and upsizing of the femoral implant with a new posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)-retaining polyethylene insert

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision of the femoral and tibial components and conversion to a posterior stabilized insert


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient’s symptoms at follow-up—pain, swelling, and difficulty descending stairs—suggest knee flexion instability. Considering his history, an incompetent PCL must be considered. Revision of the knee to a posterior stabilized or nonlinked constrained condylar implant (depending on the condition of the ligaments) likely is needed to address his symptoms. The difference in extension stability and flexion stability makes polyethylene exchange a poor option. A constrained rotating hinge design is not necessary. Repeat use of a PCL-retaining insert is not recommended. Tibial and femoral revision both are required. Correction of excessive slope will be attained with tibial revision, femoral component revision is required to convert to a PCL-substituting design. There is also an opportunity to increase posterior condylar offset if needed.

Question 1585

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following complications may occur subsequent to resurfacing hip arthroplasty for osteonecrosis of the hip but not after total hip arthroplasty?
. Aseptic loosening of the acetabular component
. Fracture of the femoral neck
. Fracture of the acetabulum
. Infection
. Groin pain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fracture of the femoral neck


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Advocates of resurfacing hip arthroplasty cite preservation of the proximal femoral bone stock as the main advantage of this procedure over total hip arthroplasty. Fracture of the retained femoral neck has been reported following resurfacing arthroplasty. The exact etiology of the latter is unknown. Technical errors, such as notching of the femoral neck or possibly disruption of the blood supply to the femoral head during extensive soft-tissue exposure, may result in femoral neck fracture. REFERENCES: Gabriel JL, Trousdale RT: Stem fracture after hemiresurfacing for femoral head osteonecrosis. J Arthroplasty 2003;18:96-99. Amstutz HC, Campbell PA, Le Duff MJ: Fracture of the neck of the femur after surface arthroplasty of the hip. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2004;86:1874-1877.

Question 1586

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Surgical treatment for this patient should include

. excision arthroplasty with placement of an articulating antibiotic cement spacer.
. excision arthroplasty with placement of a static antibiotic cement spacer.
. revision to a more constrained prosthesis, with reestablishment of the flexion and extension gap balance.
. a thicker polyethylene insert.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. excision arthroplasty with placement of an articulating antibiotic cement spacer.


Explanation

DISCUSSIONVideo 22 for referenceThis patient has an unstable cruciate-retaining TKA. The tibial cut appears to be substantial, necessitating a very thick polyethylene liner. In addition, the femoral component may be slightly more proximally located. Tests for flexion-extension gap balancing would indicate flexion instability. However, the possibility of infection remains, so screening blood tests are appropriate. The surgical treatment for this unstable knee is revision TKA to a more constrained implant, ensuring flexion-extension gap balancing. No evidence indicates that the knee is infected. A thicker polyethylene insert will not adequately balance the knee.

Question 1587

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figures below show the radiographs obtained from a patient who has been experiencing increasing tibial pain 10 years after undergoing revision total knee arthroplasty. No evidence of infection is seen. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Retain the components, and implant a tibial strut allograft.
. Revise the tibial component with a metaphyseal cone and metaphyseal uncemented stem.
. Revise the tibial component with a metaphyseal cone and a press-fit diaphyseal-engaging stem.
. Revise the tibial component with a long cemented diaphyseal-engaging stem.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revise the tibial component with a metaphyseal cone and a press-fit diaphyseal-engaging stem.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Stems are available for cemented and press-fit implantation. To be effective, press-fit stems should engage the diaphysis, as shown in Figures 3 and 4. They also assist in obtaining correct limb alignment. Short metaphyseal-engaging stems are associated with failure rates that range between 16% and 29%. Cemented stems may be shorter than press-fit stems, because they do not have to engage the diaphysis. Short, fully cemented stems offer the advantage of metaphyseal fixation. Hybrid stem fixation makes use of the metaphysis for cement fixation with metaphyseal cones or sleeves and diaphyseal-engaging press-fit stems.

Question 1588

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 60-year-old woman has activity-related hip pain after undergoing arthroplasty 5 years ago. She has severe Parkinsonism and denies fevers or chills. Radiographs are shown in Figures 45a and 45b. What is the most likely cause of her pain?
. Chronic deep infection
. Heterotopic bone
. Femoral loosening
. Parkinsonism
. Acetabular loosening

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral loosening


Explanation

The radiographs reveal both cement debonding at the lateral shoulder of the prosthesis and a cement mantle fracture. Both of these indicate a loose femoral component. The radiographs show a stress fracture with reactive bone on the lateral femoral cortex in conjunction with the cement mantle fracture. The acetabular component shows no evidence of loosening. Heterotopic bone usually is not a source of pain when it is Brooker grade I, as in this case. Parkinsonism generally is not associated with hip pain.

Question 1589

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Revision of failed hip resurfacing arthroplasty should involve

. the acetabular component only.
. the femoral component only.
. both femoral and acetabular components.
. only components that are loose or malpositioned.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. the acetabular component only.


Explanation

DISCUSSIONHip resurfacing offers several potential advantages over conventional total hip arthroplasty, particularly for patients younger than 75 years of age. This intervention can berelatively bone conserving and is appropriate in settings involving proximal femoral deformity, precluding the use of a traditional femoral component. The use of hip resurfacing in osteonecrosis has been controversial, however. Although there are several reports of successful use of these implants to address osteonecrosis, concerns remain about extensive femoral head involvement (exceeding 40%) and ability to support the femoral head cap. Consequently, hip resurfacing is not recommended for patients with large femoral head lesions.Evaluation of painful hip resurfacings requires a systematic approach. Radiographs can help surgeons assess implant position, loosening, or fractures. Serological studies including ESR, CRP, and serum cobalt and chromium levels can give clues as to whether infection, metallosis, or both are the underlying cause(s) of failure. Hip aspiration in the setting of metal-on-metal bearings necessitates a manual cell count and differential to avoid falsely elevated automated cell counts.Revision of failed hip resurfacings should involve revisions of both the femoral and acetabular components. Although successful retention of the acetabular shell has been described, concerns remain regarding cup circumference mismatch, which can lead to suboptimal clearance between the new bearing surfaces.

Question 1590

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 60-year-old patient had the procedure shown in Figure 7 performed 5 years ago. When converting this patient to a total knee arthroplasty (TKA), what patellar problem is commonly encountered intraoperatively?
. Fracture
. Patella baja
. Patella alta
. Osteonecrosis
. Maltracking

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patella baja


Explanation

Patella baja is commonly encountered when converting a high tibial osteotomy (HTO) to a TKA. Patella baja most likely occurs because of scarring.

Question 1591

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

Anteromedial approach (Ludloff)

. Lateral femoral cutaneous
. Superior gluteal
. Inferior gluteal
. Obturator
. Sciatic

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral cutaneous


Explanation

DISCUSSIONThe lateral femoral cutaneous nerve can be injured during a direct anterior approach to the hip. The superior gluteal nerve enters the gluteus medius from posterior to anterior approximately 5 cm above the greater trochanter. This nerve can be injured during the direct lateral and anterolateral approaches to the hip. Branches of the inferior gluteal nerve as well as the sciatic nerve can be injured during the posterior approach, and the obturator nerve can be damaged when performing a medial approach to the hip.

Question 1592

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 57-year-old woman had right total knee arthroplasty for varus gonarthrosis. Before surgery, her range of motion was 5 to 110 degrees. At skin closure, her range of motion was 0 to 120 degrees. Her range of motion at 10 weeks after surgery is 0 to 70 degrees. What is the best next treatment step?

. Observation
. Dynamic bracing
. Manipulation under anesthesia
. Revision with open adhesiolysis
. Physical therapy with aggressive range of motion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation


Explanation

Question.16 . When comparing the results of cemented all-polyethylene tibial components to metal-backed components,the all-polyethylene tibiais more expensive.is more susceptible to fracture.is associated with an elevated risk for polyethylene wear.has an equivalent rate of aseptic loosening.has higher failure rates when used in patients younger than age 70.Question. 17 . When the liquid monomer (monomethacrylate) is added to polymer powder (polymethylmethacrylate),the activator in the liquid monomer (N,N-Dimethyl-p-toluidine) comes in contact with the initiator in the polymer powder and polymerization is initiated. What is the initiator?HylamerPolystyreneBarium sulfateBenzoyl peroxideZirconium dioxideQuestion.18 . Figure 197 is the radiograph of a 62-year-old woman who is seen in the emergency department with a dislocated left total hip arthroplasty. This is her seventh dislocation during the last 3 months and she most recently had a liner revision. What is the best next treatment step?Skeletal tractionOpen reductionClosed reductionComponent revisionHip abduction orthosis

Question 1593

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
The dorsal (Thompson) approach to the proximal forearm uses which of the following intermuscular intervals?
. Extensor carpi radialis longus and the extensor carpi radialis brevis
. Extensor pollicis longus and the extensor pollicis brevis
. Extensor digitorum communis and the extensor carpi radialis brevis
. Extensor carpi ulnaris and the extensor carpi radialis brevis
. Abductor pollicis longus and the extensor carpi radialis brevis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extensor digitorum communis and the extensor carpi radialis brevis


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The Thompson posterior approach is used in treatment of fractures of the proximal radius. Dissection is carried out through the interval between the extensor carpi radialis brevis (radial nerve) and the extensor digitorum communis (posterior interosseous nerve). To identify this interval, the forearm is pronated and the mobile lateral wad of muscles (the ulnar-most belly is the extensor carpi radialis brevis) is grasped with the thumb and finger and pulled from the much less mobile mass of the extensor digitorum communis. The furrow created is marked with a skin marker for subsequent skin incision. The skin incision follows a line from the lateral epicondyle of the humerus to a point corresponding to the middle of the posterior aspect of the wrist. Distally, the intermuscular plane is between the extensor carpi radialis brevis and the extensor pollicis longus. REFERENCES: Crenshaw AH Jr: Surgical techniques and approaches, in Canale ST (ed): Campbell’s Operative Orthopaedics, ed 9. St Louis, MO, Mosby-Year Book, 1998, vol 1, pp 128-129. Hoppenfeld S, deBoer P: Posterior approach to the radius, in Surgical Exposures in Orthopaedics: The Anatomic Approach, ed 2. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1992, pp 136-146. Thompson JE: Anatomical methods of approach in operations on the long bones of the extremities. Ann Surg 1918;68:309-316.

Question 1594

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 63-year-old woman reports giving way of the knee and pain after undergoing primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 1 year ago. Examination reveals that the knee is stable in full extension but has gross anteroposterior instability at 90 degrees of flexion. The patient can fully extend her knee with normal quadriceps strength. Studies for infection are negative. AP and lateral radiographs are shown in Figures 12a and 12b, respectively. What is the appropriate management?
. Anti-inflammatory drugs
. Knee brace
. Physical therapy for quadriceps strengthening
. Revision to a thicker polyethylene insert
. Revision to a larger, posterior stabilized implant

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a larger, posterior stabilized implant


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs show posterior flexion instability that is the result of a flexion-extension gap imbalance and posterior cruciate ligament incompetence after a posterior cruciate ligament-retaining TKA. The femur is anteriorly displaced on the tibia, with lift-off of the femoral component from the tibial polyethylene. Revision to a larger femoral component will address the larger flexion gap relative to the extension gap, and a posterior stabilized implant will address the posterior cruciate ligament insufficiency. Pagnano and associates, reporting on a series of painful TKAs previously diagnosed as pain of unknown etiology, showed that the pain was secondary to flexion instability. Pain relief was achieved by revision to a posterior stabilized implant. REFERENCES: Pagnano MW, Hanssen AD, Lewallen DG, et al: Flexion instability after primary posterior cruciate retaining total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1998;356:39-46. Fehring TK, Valadie AL: Knee instability after total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1994;299:157-162. Fehring TK, Odum S, Griffin WL, et al: Early failures in total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 2001;392:315-318.

Question 1595

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A patient with a documented allergy to nickel requires a total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following prostheses is most likely to provide long-term success in this individual?
. Modular titanium tibial component and oxidized zirconium femoral component
. All-polyethylene tibial component and pure titanium femoral component
. All-polyethylene tibial component and cobalt-chromium alloy femoral component
. Cobalt-chromium alloy tibial component and cobalt-chromium alloy femoral component
. Modular titanium tibial component and pure titanium femoral component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Modular titanium tibial component and oxidized zirconium femoral component


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Nickel allergy is not an infrequent preoperative finding. Stainless steel and cobalt-chromium alloys contain relatively high concentrations of nickel. Titanium, oxidized zirconium, and polyethylene do not contain significant amounts of nickel. Titanium is not a good surface for the articulating portion of the femoral component because of its propensity for metallosis. Oxidized zirconium is the only suitable femoral component for patients allergic to nickel. A modular titanium tibial component or an all-polyethylene tibial component would be satisfactory for these patients. REFERENCES: Laskin RS: An oxidized Zr ceramic surfaced femoral component for total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 2003;416:191-196.

Question 1596

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figures 25a and 25b are the radiographs of a 63-year-old man who had right total hip arthroplasty (THA) 4 months ago. Progressive stiffness began 2 months after surgery, and he now reports pain only after prolonged physical activity. His examination reveals normal gait and painless range of motion with flexion of 70 degrees, extension of 0 degrees, internal rotation of 20 degrees, external rotation of 20 degrees, abduction of 10 degrees, and adduction of 10 degrees. His erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels are within defined limits. Physical therapy has produced no benefit. What is the most appropriate next step?
. Reevaluation in 6 months
. 25 mg of indomethacin 3 times daily for 6 weeks
. 1 dose of irradiation at 800 Gy
. Surgical excision of heterotopic ossification (HO)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reevaluation in 6 months


Explanation

This patient presents with HO 4 months after undergoing THA. Symptomatic HO may complicate nearly 7% of primary THA cases. Improvement in pain is expected within 6 months, and most patients will not need surgical treatment. Surgical excision may be warranted for symptomatic patients after full maturation of the HO, usually 6 to 18 months after the surgery. Patients can be followed with repeated serum alkaline phosphatase levels, which are elevated initially and should return to normal upon maturation of HO. Alternatively, a bone scan can show decreased activity once the HO has matured. Twenty-five milligrams of indomethacin 3 times daily for 6 weeks or 1 dose of irradiation at 700 to 800 Gy is effective in the prevention of HO, not for the treatment of established HO.

Question 1597

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 45-year-old man has a draining sinus and recurrent infection of his right total knee arthroplasty. He has had two prior revision surgeries after the primary procedure and three other surgeries before his initial replacement, including a proximal tibial osteotomy and subsequent hardware removal. On clinical examination, he has a draining sinus in the mid portion of his surgical scar and a range of motion of 5° to 85°. AP and lateral radiographs of the right knee are shown in figures below. During surgery, the femoral component is found to be grossly loose, but the tibial component is well fixed. What is the most appropriate extensile approach that would provide adequate exposure and aid in tibial component extraction?
. Extended medial parapatellar approach
. Quadriceps snip
. Extended tibial tubercle osteotomy
. Medial epicondyle osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extended tibial tubercle osteotomy


Explanation

Extended tibial tubercle osteotomy is an extensile approach to revision total knee arthroplasty that affords excellent exposure and can facilitate removal of tibial sleeves and cones. This patient has had multiple surgeries, including a proximal tibial osteotomy, as well as poor range of motion, patella baja, and a well-fixed metaphyseal sleeve component. Classically, an extended tibial tubercle osteotomy provides outstanding exposure for component removal in the setting of prior high tibial osteotomy and patella baja. For this patient, it is important to recognize the patella baja on the radiographs, as well as the tibial sleeve. In many of these cases the osteotomy provides access to the sleeve to help with extraction, because the stem will not pull through the sleeve or detach from the tray to allow visualization of the sleeve. The extended medial parapatellar approach is just a long medial approach that typically yields good exposure but would not help with the patella baja or extraction of the tibial sleeve. The quadriceps snip would give good exposure to the knee but would not aid in tibial component removal. Lastly, the medial epicondyle osteotomy could help with exposure and tensioning of the medial complex of the knee but would not help with tibial component extraction.

Question 1598

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 75-year-old woman has a 1-year history of right hip pain and a right total hip arthroplasty (THA) performed in 1999. Her left THA, performed in 2002, is asymptomatic. Plain radiographs show that all of the components appear well fixed and in good position. There is evidence of eccentric polyethylene wear of the right hip with focal osteolysis of the calcar and great trochanter (with none of these findings on the left hip). What is the most likely explanation for her right hip pain?

. Acute periprosthetic infection
. Aseptic loosening of her right acetabular component
. Wear debris of a polyethylene liner in the right hip
. Pseudotumor in the right hip attributable to trunnionosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acute periprosthetic infection


Explanation

DISCUSSIONThis patient likely has 1 conventional polyethylene hip (1999) and 1 hip with highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) (2002); most centers transitioned to HXLPE around 2001 to 2002. This explains the clear difference in the clinical and radiographic performance of the 2 hips during the second decade. There is clear evidence of decreased wear and osteolysis and clinical benefits (ie, decreased revision rate) during the second decade following the introduction of HXLPE for THA. Acute infection is unlikely considering the chronicity of symptoms. The radiographs show no obvious evidence of cup loosening. A pseudotumor attributable to trunnionosis, while reported, remains an infrequent clinical issue.

Question 1599

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 50-year-old man undergoes revision total knee arthroplasty (TKA). The tibial component shown in Figure 153 was retrieved at the time of revision. The wear damage demonstrated on the backside of the tibial component is most likely related to which wear mechanism(s)?
. Abrasive wear
. Fatigue wear
. Adhesive wear
. Adhesive and abrasive wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adhesive and abrasive wear


Explanation

Pitting and delamination seen in tibial component retrievals on the bearing surface of a TKA is related to fatigue wear. Backside wear is shown in the photograph; this is where the lot numbers usually are present, but now they are not distinguishable because of backside wear. This wear mechanism is attributable to adhesive and abrasive wear. The nanometer-size particles created by this wear mechanism account for the higher prevalence of osteolysis associated with modular tibial components.

Question 1600

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A woman underwent an uncemented medial/lateral tapered femoral placement during a total hip arthroplasty. The orthopaedic surgeon noticed a nondisplaced vertical fracture in the calcar region of the femoral neck during final implant insertion. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Removal of the press-fit implant and cementing of the same femoral stem
. Removal of the uncemented femoral component and placement of a revision modular taper-fluted femoral stem
. Removal of the implant, placement of a cerclage wire around the femoral neck above the lesser trochanter, and reinsertion of the implant
. Final seating of the uncemented femoral component without additional measures

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Removal of the implant, placement of a cerclage wire around the femoral neck above the lesser trochanter, and reinsertion of the implant


Explanation

The recognized treatment for a proximal periprosthetic fracture is to first identify the extent and then optimize the correction of the fracture. Several studies indicate that proximal cerclage wiring is adequate to create "barrel hoop" stability of the proximal femur. Braided cables offer superior stability compared with twisted wires or Luque wires. Finally, the appropriate postoperative treatment is protected weight bearing for 6 weeks, with periodic radiographs taken at 2-week intervals. Other options such as cementing the femoral stem and using a revision arthroplasty device are indicated for unstable fractures.