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Question 1141

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 75-year-old woman who underwent right total hip arthroplasty in 2009 presents with recurrent posterior hip dislocations. Successful closed reduction was performed twice. The surgical report from the index arthroplasty notes a 54-mm monoblock acetabular component with a 28-mm inner diameter compression molded polyethylene and a high offset neck cementless stem with a +8-mm length, 28-mm head. What is the best next step?
. Hip spica cast placement
. Acetabular revision arthroplasty
. Resection arthroplasty
. Femoral head revision to a 28-mm diameter, +10-mm length head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular revision arthroplasty


Explanation

This patient has demonstrated recurrent instability, and her current implants lack the modularity to upsize and improve the head-neck ratio and range to impingement. Given the monoblock acetabular component and a +7-mm neck length, the best option is revision to a large-diameter femoral head or dual-mobility component.

Question 1142

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 53 shows the radiograph of a 48-year-old man who has a left side periprosthetic femoral fracture around the femoral stem of a previous revision hip arthroplasty. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a plate
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a cable
. Revision with a short stem and plate fixation
. Revision with allograft prosthesis composite
. Removal of the proximal femoral bone and replacement with a cemented segmental prosthesis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision with allograft prosthesis composite


Explanation

In type B3 fractures, the proximal femur is so deficient that it cannot be treated with open reduction and internal fixation or support a new femoral component. In younger patients, the femur can be reconstructed with allograft prosthesis composite to restore bone stock. Removal of the distal stem with trephines would compromise fixation with cement. Elderly and low-demand patients can be treated more simply with a cemented segmental replacement prosthesis, such as that used for tumor reconstruction.

Question 1143

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 57-year-old man has right knee osteoarthritis and is indicated for a total knee arthroplasty (TKA). The patient has questions regarding the use of preoperative 3-dimensional imaging to develop custom cutting guides. Current data have been shown to support what proposed benefits with the use of custom cutting guides versus conventional instrumentation?

. Improved coronal component alignment
. Improved clinical outcomes
. Decreased instrument trays
. Improved axial component alignmentCustom cutting guides were developed and introduced with numerous proposed benefits. including improved component coronal and axial alignment, clinical outcomes, and cost-efficiency. Unfortunately, numerous studies have failed to demonstrate these benefits. Overall coronal and implant component alignment have been shown to be similar with the use of conventional instrumentation versus custom cutting guides, and there has been no improvement in clinical outcomes. Furthermore, the costs associated with preoperative imaging and guide fabrication often offset the intraoperative savings associated with decreased instrument trays, sterilization procedures, and operating time. The use of custom cutting guides does decrease the number of instrument trays needed to perform a TKA, as long as recuts are not performed.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Improved coronal component alignment


Explanation

Figures 1 through 5 are the radiographs and CT scans of a 67-year-old man who has had intermittent anterior and medial pain since his left total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 12 years ago. Examination reveals full range of motion and positive posterior drawer. His pain has been recalcitrant to physical therapy, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, and brace treatment. What is the most appropriate treatment?

Question 1144

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
When performing knee arthroplasty, which of the following procedures provides the most consistent fixation for the tibial component?
. Cementless fixation of the tibial component
. Augmenting cementless fixation of the tibial component with pegs or screws
. Cementing the metaphyseal portion and press fitting the keel of the tibial component
. Cementing the metaphyseal and keel portions of the tibial component
. Cemented fixation of the tibial component with screws

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cementing the metaphyseal and keel portions of the tibial component


Explanation

All of the options, except cementing the metaphyseal portion and press fitting the keel of the tibial component, have been shown to create strong and long-lasting constructs; however, cementing of both the platform and the keel offers the most predictable solution. Cementing the platform and not the keel has been shown to have a higher loosening rate than the more traditional methods of fully cementing or using screws to augment fixation.

Question 1145

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
Resurfacing the patella during a total knee replacement is strongly indicated when the diagnosis is
. Rheumatoid arthritis
. Posttraumatic arthritis
. Degenerative osteoarthritis
. Osteonecrosis of the tibial plateau
. Osteonecrosis of the medial femoral condyle

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rheumatoid arthritis


Explanation

A study by Boyd et al. was performed to determine patellar complications after TKA, with the use of an unconstrained prosthesis, with and without resurfacing of the patella. Chronic pain (post-operative, peripatellar pain) in the group that had not had resurfacing was noted in 40 (13 percent) of the 300 knees that were affected by inflammatory arthritis (rheumatoid arthritis [RA], juvenile RA and miscellaneous subcategories), and in 11 (6 percent) of the 195 knees affected by degenerative osteoarthrosis. A revision to resurface the patella was performed in all 51 knees that caused chronic pain and had not had resurfacing of the patella. Hence, chronic pain after TKA without resurfacing the patella was more common in knees affected by rheumatoid arthritis than in those affected by degenerative osteoarthritis. The authors of the study recommend that the patella be resurfaced when an unconstrained prosthesis is used in patients with a diagnosis of inflammatory arthritis and to a lesser degree osteoarthrosis.

Question 1146

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

You are interested in learning a new technique for minimally invasive total knee arthroplasty. The Keyhole Genuflex system seems appealing to you because the instrumentation comes with wireless controls. What is an acceptable arrangement to learn more about this system?

. You and your spouse attend dinner at a local restaurant with the local representative to discuss the Keyhole Genuflex knee.
. Keyhole pays your tuition to attend a CME course sponsored by the American Association of Hip & Knee Surgeons where both the Genuflex and the competing Styph total knee are discussed and demonstrated.
. Keyhole will pay your expenses to attend a workshop at their company headquarters, to learn how to implant the Genuflex knee and to see how the implant is manufactured and tested.
. Keyhole will pay you $500 for each knee that you implant if you switch from your current total knee system.
. After you have implanted 25 Genuflex knees, Keyhole will list you on their website as a consultant, pay you a consulting fee of $5,000 per year, and invite you to a golf tournament for their consultants at a resort.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. You and your spouse attend dinner at a local restaurant with the local representative to discuss the Keyhole Genuflex knee.


Explanation

Both the American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons (AAOS) and AdvaMed, the medical device manufacturer's trade organization, have written guidelines that address potential conflicts of interest regarding interactions between physicians and manufacturer's representatives when it comes to patients' best interest. The AAOS feels that the orthopaedic profession exists for the primary purpose of caring for the patient and that the physician-patient relationship is the central focus of all ethical concerns. When an orthopaedic surgeon receives anything of significant value from industry, a potential conflict of interest exists. The AAOS believes that it is acceptable for industry to provide financial and other support to orthopaedic surgeons if such support has significant educational value and has the purpose of improving patient care. All dealings between orthopaedic surgeons and industry should benefit the patient and be able to withstand public scrutiny. A gift of any kind from industry should in no way influence the orthopaedic surgeon in determining the most appropriate treatment for his or her patient. Orthopaedic surgeons should not accept gifts or other financial support with conditions attached. Subsidies by industry to underwrite the costs of educational events where CME credits are provided can contribute to the improvement of patient care and are acceptable. A corporate subsidy received by the conference's sponsor is acceptable; however, direct industry reimbursement for an orthopaedic surgeon to attend a CME educational event is not appropriate. Special circumstances may arise in which orthopaedic surgeons may be required to learn new surgical techniques demonstrated by an expert or to review new implants or other devices on-site. In these circumstances, reimbursement for expenses may be appropriate.

Question 1147

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 1 depicts an intraoperative photograph obtained following proximal row carpectomy. The black dot denotes the capitate. The top of the figure is radial and the bottom of the figure is ulnar. Surgical disruption of the structure identified by the forceps would result in
. loss of active thumb interphalangeal (IP) flexion.
. distal radioulnar joint instability.
. avascular necrosis of the capitate.
. ulnar carpal translocation.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ulnar carpal translocation.


Explanation

EXPLANATION: The structure identified by the forceps is the radioscaphocapitate ligament. During a proximal row carpectomy, it is very important to identify and protect this ligament. Compromise of the ligament would result in ulnar translocation of the carpus and early failure of the proximal row carpectomy procedure. If the ligament is injured during surgery, immediate repair should be performed. Green and associates discuss the importance of the radioscaphocapitate ligament in stabilizing the carpus after this procedure is performed. Nakamura and associates compared 3-mm, 6-mm, and 10-mm radial styloidectomies, and only the 3-mm styloidectomy subsequently preserved carpal stability. Compromise of the radioscaphocapitate ligament occurred when larger portions of the radial styloid were excised. Distal radioulnar joint instability would result only from the disruption of the distal radioulnar joint stabilizers. Avascular necrosis would not occur, because the capitate receives its blood supply mainly from the palmar vessels. Finally, loss of active thumb IP flexion would not occur, because the flexor pollicis longus tendon would remain intact even if ligament compromise were to occur.

Question 1148

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
What is the most common complication of using structural bulk allograft to reconstruct segmental defects of the acetabulum?
. Infection
. Early loss of cup fixation
. Graft resorption and collapse
. Limb-length discrepancy
. Dislocation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Graft resorption and collapse


Explanation

Both autograft and allograft have been used for complex acetabular reconstructions. They have been shown to be successful in the short term. However, graft resorption with collapse and subsequent cup loosening have occurred at high rates for both types of grafts, especially if reinforcement rings or cages are not used.

Question 1149

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following acetabular cup designs has shown the greatest survivorship at 10 years in patients younger than age 60 years?
. Cemented polyethylene socket
. Cemented metal-backed socket
. Cementless hydroxyapatite-coated smooth metal-backed socket
. Cementless threaded metal-backed socket
. Cementless porous-coated metal-backed socket

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cementless porous-coated metal-backed socket


Explanation

Poor survivorship of cemented sockets in young patients has led to the development of a variety of cementless designs. Of these, smooth metal-backed sockets have not performed as well as porous-coated designs. Threaded metal-backed sockets showed a 6% to 25% revision rate secondary to aseptic loosening at a mean follow-up of 4.5 to 6 years. Despite some early failed designs, cementless porous-coated metal-backed sockets have shown the best survivorship in long-term studies.

Question 1150

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Total hip arthroplasty in a patient with a long-standing hip fusion on the contralateral side is most likely to result in
. a higher rate of infection.
. a higher rate of mechanical failure and loosening.
. a higher rate of myositis ossificans.
. a higher rate of dislocation.
. improved gait efficiency.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a higher rate of mechanical failure and loosening.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Contralateral total hip arthroplasty in patients with hip fusions results in a 40% higher rate of mechanical failure and loosening. During gait, motion of the contralateral hip is increased and more time is spent bearing weight on that hip. In patients with hip fusions, gait efficiency is only 53%, with a greater rate of oxygen consumption. REFERENCES: Garvin KL, Pellicci PM, Windsor RE, et al: Contralateral total hip arthroplasty or ipsilateral total hip arthroplasty in patients who have long-standing fusion of the hip. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1989;71:1355-1362. Gore DR, Murray MP, et al: Walking patterns of men with unilateral surgical hip fusion. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1975;57:759-765. Romness DW, Morrey BF: Total knee arthroplasty in patients with prior ipsilateral hip fusion. J Arthroplasty 1992;7:63-70.

Question 1151

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A patient is scheduled to undergo total knee arthroplasty (TKA) following failure of nonsurgical management. History reveals that she underwent a patellectomy as a teenager as the result of a motor vehicle accident. Examination reveals normal ligamentous stability. For the most predictable outcome, which of the following implants should be used?
. Mobile-bearing knee
. Posterior cruciate ligament-sparing knee
. Posterior cruciate ligament-substituting knee
. Semiconstrained-style knee
. Triaxial hinged knee

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior cruciate ligament-substituting knee


Explanation

Paletta and Laskins performed a retrospective study of the results of TKA with cement in 22 patients who had a previous patellectomy. Nine of the patients had insertion of a posterior cruciate ligament-substituting implant. Thirteen patients had insertion of a posterior cruciate ligament-sparing implant. The 5-year postoperative knee scores were 89 for the posterior cruciate ligament-substituting knee versus 67 for the posterior cruciate ligament-sparing knee (P < 0.01). The patella functions to increase the lever arm of the extensor mechanism and to position the quadriceps tendon and the patellar ligament roughly parallel to the anterior cruciate ligament and posterior cruciate ligament, respectively. The patellar ligament thereby provides a strong reinforcing structure that functions to prevent excessive anterior translation of the femur during flexion of the knee. The absence of the patella results in the patellar ligament and the quadriceps tendon being relatively in line with one another. After a patellectomy, the resultant quadriceps force is no longer parallel to the posterior cruciate ligament. This results in loss of the reinforcing function of the patellar ligament. The authors believe this loss of reinforcing function may place increased stresses on the posterior cruciate ligament and posterior aspect of the capsule, which may result in stretching of these structures over time. They found a high rate of anteroposterior instability, a high prevalence of recurvatum, and a high rate of loss of full active extension compared with passive extension in the posterior cruciate ligament-sparing group, which supports their theory.

Question 1152

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Design factors that enhance the long-term survival of proximally coated cementless hip implants include both initial stability and
. circumferential porous coating.
. a titanium porous coating.
. a fluted stem.
. a distal centralizer.
. modular fixation pads.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. circumferential porous coating.


Explanation

Proximally coated femoral components were conceived in response to the proximal stress shielding seen with extensively coated total hip stems, but initial patient studies showed problems with osteolysis, thigh pain, and stability. However, Mont and Hungerford now report that second-generation devices that have been in use more than 5 years clinically have shown very low aseptic loosening rates (1% to 3%), and patients report less thigh pain (less than 5% in most studies). These results can be attributed to improved geometry, instruments, and technique, which ensure initial implant stability. The authors suggest that proximal coating must be circumferential to seal the diaphysis from wear debris, and they note that the concept of proximal coating for cementless femoral stems seems viable as long as the twin requirements of circumferential coating and rigid initial stability are realized.

Question 1153

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figures below show the AP and lateral radiographs obtained from a 54-year-old woman who has worsening groin pain 18 months after a primary left total hip arthroplasty. The pain is worst when climbing stairs, when rising from a seated position, and during resisted hip flexion. Her pain improved early after surgery but did not completely resolve. Her C-reactive protein and erythrocyte sedimentation rate results of less than 1 mg/dL and 10 mm/hr, respectively, were obtained in the office. What is the best next step?
. MRI with MARS of the left hip
. Revision of the left acetabular component
. Intra-articular ultrasound-guided left hip injection
. Physical therapy for the left hip

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision of the left acetabular component


Explanation

Iliopsoas impingement is a potential cause of persistent groin pain after a total hip arthroplasty. This patientโ€™s history gives groin pain with resisted hip flexion and during activities that require this level of function. The radiographs depict an acetabular component with substantial retroversion. Typical options for the management of iliopsoas tendon impingement include injections, tenotomy, and acetabular revision. Recently, Chalmers and associates reported more predictable groin pain resolution with 8 mm or more of anterior acetabular component when overhang was revised. The radiographs clearly show more retroversion, with a cup prominence of more than 8 mm anteriorly. MRI with MARS could potentially help in the diagnosis of this impingement but would not help in management. An ultrasound-guided injection would need to be administered into the iliopsoas tendon sheath to be of help and, in this case, would likely be performed for diagnostic purposes due to the extreme anterior overhang. Option D would be useful for mild cases of iliopsoas impingement but likely would not help much in this more extreme case.

Question 1154

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A 70-year-old woman who underwent total knee replacement 18 months ago has had 3 weeks of moderate drainage from a previously healed wound. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Vacuum-assisted wound closure dressing
. Intravenous antibiotics for 6 weeks, followed by long-term oral antibiotic administration
. Irrigation and debridement, followed by polyethylene exchange
. Two-stage debridement and reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Two-stage debridement and reconstruction


Explanation

This situation represents a definitively and chronically infected knee replacement. Antibiotic therapy alone might suppress the infection but would not eradicate it. Debridement and polyethylene exchange would be appropriate treatment for an early postoperative infection. The treatment of choice is to perform a two-stage debridement and reconstruction. Although not among the listed choices, an aspiration or culture could be done presurgically and might help clinicians identify the best antibiotics to treat the condition. Antibiotic selection would not affect the need for the two-stage reconstruction, however.

Question 1155

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figures below depict the radiographs obtained from a 53-year-old man who has had swelling in his right knee for 2 years, with minimal pain. He did not note an injury to the knee but has been unable to ambulate without crutches during this period. His past history is unremarkable, and he denies a history of diabetes or back problems. The social history reveals that he emigrated from China, and he works at a desk job. Physical examination shows a healthy man in no acute distress. Range of motion of the right knee is 5ยฐ to 120ยฐ actively and 0ยฐ to 120ยฐ passively, without pain. Sensation is decreased on the bottom of both feet, but otherwise the neurologic examination is unremarkable. Laboratory testing reveals a positive rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test. What is the best next step?
. Open reduction and internal fixation
. Hinged total knee arthroplasty
. Arthrodesis using an intramedullary nail
. Irrigation and debridement with spacer placement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hinged total knee arthroplasty


Explanation

This patient has a neuropathic knee caused by neurosyphilis, as shown by the joint destruction on the radiographs, with a lack of pain and a positive RPR test. He has a low-demand job and would be best treated with a hinged knee arthroplasty to provide stability for his knee.

Question 1156

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 68-year-old man with no significant medical history underwent a total knee arthroplasty 4 years ago. He reports that he had no problems with the knee until 6 weeks ago when he noted the gradual onset of pain following a colonoscopy. Examination reveals a painful, swollen knee. Knee aspiration reveals a WBC count of 40,000/mmยณ. Management should consist of
. Suppressive antibiotics
. Open irrigation and debridement with polyethylene exchange
. One-stage resection arthroplasty and reimplantation
. Two-stage resection arthroplasty and reimplantation
. Arthroscopic irrigation and debridement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Two-stage resection arthroplasty and reimplantation


Explanation

The treatment of choice for a late hematogenous infection is two-stage resection arthroplasty and reimplantation, with parenteral antibiotics prior to reimplantation. This is particularly true when septic loosening has occurred as in this patient. Open irrigation and debridement with polyethylene exchange has been used successfully when the duration of symptoms is 3 weeks or less. Long-term suppressive antibiotics are most commonly used when the patientโ€™s medical condition precludes further surgery. Delayed reimplantation has been shown to be superior to immediate reimplantation in multiple studies. Little data support the use of arthroscopic irrigation and debridement.

Question 1157

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 62-year-old active man returns for routine follow-up 16 years after hip replacement. He has no hip pain. Radiographs reveal a well-circumscribed osteolytic lesion around a single acetabular screw. All hip components are perfectly positioned. Comparison radiographs obtained 6 months later show an increase in the size of the osteolytic lesion. CT depicts a well-described lesion that is 3 cm at its largest diameter and is localized around one screw hole with an eccentric femoral head. What treatment is appropriate, assuming that well-fixed cementless total hip components are in place?
. Revision of the polyethylene liner, removal of the screw, and debridement of the osteolytic lesion with or without bone grafting
. Revision of the acetabular component to a newer design without screws
. Removal of the screw, revision of the polyethylene liner, and stem cell injection into the lytic lesion
. Removal of the offending screw from the metal socket and placement of a new polyethylene liner in the existing socket

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision of the polyethylene liner, removal of the screw, and debridement of the osteolytic lesion with or without bone grafting


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Given a well-fixed acetabular metal shell and a localized osteolytic lesion, good outcomes can be expected from liner revision in this clinical scenario with retention of the metal socket, assuming no damage to the components or other unexpected findings arise during revision surgery. Here, complete cup revision is not warranted, considering the appropriate implant position. Beaulรฉ and associates reviewed 83 consecutive patients (90 hips) in whom a well-fixed acetabular component was retained in a clinical scenario such as the one described. No hip showed recurrence or expansion of periacetabular osteolytic lesions. If the metal cup is unstable, acetabular component revision may be indicated.

Question 1158

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Figure 88 is the radiograph of a 68-year-old man who fell 3 weeks after undergoing a successful left primary total hip arthroplasty. He is experiencing a substantial increase in pain and an inability to bear weight. What is an appropriate treatment plan?

. Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of the fracture
. Remove the current stem, femur ORIF, and insertion of a longer revision stem
. Femur ORIF with cables and strut graft, leaving the current stem in situ
. Femur ORIF combined reimplantation of the primary component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of the fracture


Explanation

DISCUSSIONBased on the fact that the fracture is occurring around the stem (type B) and the stem is clearly loose (type B2), the appropriate treatment is removal of the in situ stem (which is loose), ORIF of the femur (cerclage wires, cables, or a plate would be acceptable), and insertion of a longer revision stem (a tapered fluted modular titanium or fully porous coated cylindrical stem) to bypass the fracture. All other responses are incorrect because they provide inappropriate treatment options for a Vancouver B2 fracture.

Question 1159

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A patient fell 3 weeks after undergoing a total hip arthroplasty using cementless fixation of the femoral component. She sustained a comminuted Vancouver type B-2 fracture with displacement of the calcar fragment. What is the best treatment option?
. Revision using a proximal femoral replacement prosthesis
. Revision using a diaphyseal engaging femoral prosthesis along with cerclage fixation
. Open reduction internal fixation using a locking plate with strut graft
. Protected weight bearing with abduction bracing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision using a diaphyseal engaging femoral prosthesis along with cerclage fixation


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has an acute postoperative fracture of the proximal femur with subsidence. It is also common that the stem retroverts relative to the femur. It is most often seen in proximally porous coated stems within 90 days of surgery; one paper found it to occur 0.7% of the time in modern implants. There is always a debate whether this is a missed intraoperative fracture, or a new fracture that has resulted from an event of increased hoop stresses. Removal of the primary stem, placement of a diaphyseal engaging stem (most frequently a tapered-fluted stem), and cabling of the fracture is the most successful treatment.

Question 1160

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
For patients undergoing a surgical procedure where the risk of requiring a transfusion is less than 10%, the International Committee of Effective Blood Usage suggests
. 1 unit of autologous blood.
. 2 units of autologous blood.
. 1 unit of direct donated blood.
. use of cell saver intraoperatively.
. no donation is necessary.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. no donation is necessary.


Explanation

Recent studies have shown a high rate of waste of autologous blood. Therefore, the Committee does not recommend autologous blood donation for procedures that carry a transfusion risk of 10% or less.