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Question 1121

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Figures 157a and 157b are the radiographs of a 22-year-old laborer who has progressively increasing lateral knee pain that is unresponsive to nonsurgical treatment. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?

. Distal femoral osteotomy
. Proximal tibial osteotomy
. Lateral unicompartmental knee arthroplasty
. Total knee arthroplasty (TKA)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Distal femoral osteotomy


Explanation

DISCUSSIONDistal femoral osteotomy is the preferred surgical treatment for this young patient. A varus-producing proximal tibial osteotomy is not indicated with valgus deformity and lateral femoral hypoplasia. Osteotomy on the tibial side would result in obliquity of the joint line and improper loading. Lateral unicompartmental arthroplasty or TKA are both less appropriate for this patient, who will be placing high demands on his knee; these demands will pose high risk for premature failure of an artificial knee implant and could necessitate revision surgery.

Question 1122

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
The images show the clinical photograph and radiograph obtained from a 70-year-old man who has deformity and pain 1 year after primary total hip arthroplasty. What is the reason for the observed deformity?
. A Vancouver type B1 fracture
. Residual leg-length discrepancy
. Loosening and subsidence of the femoral stem into anteversion
. Loosening and subsidence of the femoral stem into retroversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Loosening and subsidence of the femoral stem into retroversion


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Figure 1 reveals an external rotation deformity of the right lower extremity. This deformity can have numerous causes, including extra-articular deformity. Figure 2 reveals a loose, subsided femoral component. Femoral stems typically subside into retroversion due to proximal femoral biomechanics, which cause a compensatory external rotation deformity. The combined findings from both images suggest an external rotation deformity most likely related to subsidence into retroversion.

Question 1123

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

After performing a total hip arthroplasty through a posterolateral approach, an orthopaedic surgeon is unable to adequately externally rotate the leg and subsequently exposes the anterior capsule. When releasing the inferior aspect of the anterior capsule, pulsatile bleeding is encountered. A branch of which artery is most likely lacerated?

. Inferior gluteal
. Medial femoral circumflex
. Lateral femoral circumflex
. Femoral

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior gluteal


Explanation

DISCUSSIONBranches of the lateral femoral circumflex artery arise from the inferior aspect of the anterior hip capsule. They can be injured when removing the anterior capsule from any approach. The inferior gluteal artery supplies the gluteus maximus. The medial femoral circumflex artery enters the hip joint along the path of the obturator externus tendon. The femoral artery crosses the anterior hip joint in the superior-to-inferior direction and is located just medial to the hip joint.

Question 1124

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 73-year-old man is scheduled to have mature heterotopic bone resected from around his left total hip arthroplasty. The optimal management for prophylaxis against the return of heterotopic bone postoperatively is radiation therapy that consists of
. 400 cGy in one dose.
. 700 cGy in one dose.
. 1,000 cGy in five doses.
. 2,000 cGy in 10 doses.
. 3,000 cGy in 10 doses.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 700 cGy in one dose.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Patients require prophylaxis for heterotopic bone after resection to prevent recurrence. The optimal management has been found to be a dose of 700 cGy in one dose delivered either pre- or postoperatively. A dose of 2,000 to 3,000 cGy is considered excessive. Radiation therapy consisting of 1,000 cGy in five doses is an acceptable prophylaxis; however, it will require an extended hospital stay of 3 to 4 days and is more problematic for the patient who must be transported for radiation therapy for 5 days. A dose of 400 cGy is not as effective in prophylaxis for heterotopic bone formation. REFERENCES: Healy WL, Lo TC, DeSimone AA, Rask B, Pfeifer BA: Single-dose irradiation for the prevention of heterotopic ossification after total hip arthroplasty: A comparison of doses of five hundred and fifty and seven hundred centigray. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:590-595. Pelligrini VD Jr, Gregoritch SJ: Preoperative irradiation for the prevention of heterotopic ossification following total hip arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1996;78:870-881. Pelligrini VD Jr, Konski AA, Gastel JA, Rubin P, Evarts CM: Prevention of heterotopic ossification with irradiation after total hip arthroplasty: Radiation therapy with a single dose of eight hundred centigray administered to a limited field. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1992;74:186-200.

Question 1125

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Compact bone, titanium, stainless steel, cobalt-chrome

. The correct order of modulus of elasticity is as follows in Gpa (psi x 106):
. Compact bone: 21 (3)
. Titanium: 96 (14)
. Stainless Steel: 193 (28)
. Cobalt-Chrome: 235 (34)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The correct order of modulus of elasticity is as follows in Gpa (psi x 106):


Explanation

(1001) Q1-1308:In a patient with a previous compression hip screw in place at the time of total hip arthroplasty, what precautionary measures should be undertaken after hardware removal to prevent a periprosthetic fracture:

Question 1126

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 72-year-old woman is scheduled to undergo right total hip arthroplasty. Her preoperative radiograph is shown in Figure below. To avoid increasing this patient’s combined offset while maintaining her leg length, what is the most appropriate surgical plan?
. Lateralize the acetabular component, use a low offset femoral component, and make a shorter neck cut
. Medialize the acetabular component, use a low offset femoral component, and make a longer neck cut
. Lateralize the acetabular component, use a high offset femoral component, and make a shorter neck cut
. Medialize the acetabular component, use a high offset femoral component, and make a longer neck cut

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medialize the acetabular component, use a low offset femoral component, and make a longer neck cut


Explanation

The management of patients with proximal femoral deformity can be difficult. Appropriate implant selection and preoperative templating are critical. In this patient, it would be difficult to avoid increasing the combined offset by too much, which could contribute to the overtensioning of the soft tissues and trochanteric pain. By medializing the acetabular component (decreasing the combined offset), using a low offset femoral component or a cemented component placed more valgus (decreasing the combined offset), and making a longer neck cut (to avoid shortening of the lower extremity), restoration of the patient’s native offset and leg length can be achieved.

Question 1127

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 28 shows the postoperative radiograph of a 36-year-old patient. The cerclage cable was placed for a minimal medial calcar fracture seen during femoral preparation. In the immediate postoperative period, what is the highest level of activity that would be safely permitted?
. Immediate full weight bearing
. Protected weight bearing
. Toe touch weight bearing
. Non-weight-bearing
. 50% weight bearing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Immediate full weight bearing


Explanation

The incidence of femoral fracture in primary cementless total hip arthroplasty ranges from 1.5% to 27.8%. It is imperative that the implant and fracture are stable both intraoperatively and postoperatively. Cerclage wiring or cerclage cabling is the current recommended treatment for nondisplaced calcar fractures and minimally displaced proximal fractures. Berend and associates reviewed the results of 58 total hips in 55 patients with intraoperative calcar fracture managed with single or multiple cerclage wires or cables and immediate full weight bearing. Follow-up averaged 7.5 years, and there were no revisions of the femoral component. No patients had severe thigh pain.

Question 1128

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
The provided image shows the radiograph obtained from a woman who returns status post total hip arthroplasty 14 years earlier. She denies pain and has no discomfort on examination. She then undergoes revision total hip arthroplasty with head and liner exchange and bone grafting. After a physical therapy session two days after surgical intervention, she develops inability to dorsiflex the foot while she is sitting in a chair. The initial treatment should consist of
. lying completely supine in bed.
. remaining seated and placing the postsurgical leg on a stool.
. transferring to bed with the head of the bed no lower than 60°.
. transferring back to bed with the head of the bed level and the surgical knee flexed.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. transferring back to bed with the head of the bed level and the surgical knee flexed.


Explanation

Gamma irradiation produces free radicals. Although these free radicals can form cross-links with other polyethylene chains, the free radicals can also form a bond with oxygen, resulting in early oxidation. Gamma irradiation in air produces the highest risk for oxidized polyethylene, resulting in the highest risk for wear, delamination, and subsequent osteolysis. This patient demonstrates severe periarticular osteolysis. When she is asymptomatic, this suggests the acetabular and femoral components remain well fixed to the bone. Consequently, she can be treated by removing the wear generator (polyethylene exchange), along with bone grafting of the osteolytic defect. Considering the extensive amount of osteolysis, indefinite observation would not be appropriate. A foot drop develops 2 days after surgery. As a result, it can be assumed that the nerve was not injured directly during the surgical procedure. Although MRI or CT may be indicated to identify an evolving hematoma, the immediate concern is to minimize pressure on the sciatic nerve. Tension on the nerve can be reduced by flexing the surgical knee and positioning the bed flat.

Question 1129

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
What is the most frequent complication following primary total hip arthroplasty?
. Infection
. Dislocation
. Metal hypersensitivity
. Component loosening
. Thromboembolic disease

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Thromboembolic disease


Explanation

Thromboembolic disease can occur in up to 58% of unprotected patients and up to 20% of protected patients depending on the type of prophylaxis used, even though most thrombi are small and have little clinical consequence. The primary goal of prophylaxis is to prevent symptomatic deep venous thrombosis and fatal pulmonary emboli. Dislocation has been reported in up to 10% of primary cases, but generally acceptable rates of less than 5% are the norm. Component loosening following primary total hip arthroplasty is rare prior to a 10-year follow-up, and 90% to 95% of patients should reach the 10-year follow-up without the need for revision for any reason. Metal hypersensitivity is unusual, and nickel found in cobalt-chromium alloys is the most common offending agent. Infection of primary total hip arthroplasty is less than 1%.

Question 1130

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

When performing a right proximal humeral hemiarthroplasty, the relative placements of the lesser tuberosity relative to the biceps tendon is best depicted, in Figure 175, by the Review Topic

. lesser tuberosity at A, biceps at B.
. lesser tuberosity at B, biceps at C.
. lesser tuberosity at C, biceps at B.
. lesser tuberosity at A, biceps at C.
. lesser tuberosity at C, biceps at D.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. lesser tuberosity at A, biceps at B.


Explanation

The lesser tuberosity should be placed at position A, and the biceps tendon at positionB. One of the most common errors during proximal humeral arthroplasty is the use of the lateral keel of the prosthesis as the landmark, around which the tuberosities are reconstructed. If this is done, the anterior soft tissue/bone element is stretched, while the posterior soft tissue/bone element is lax, with a resultant loss of external rotation of the arm. The biceps should be used as the proper landmark for tuberosity reconstruction and in its absence, the anterior aspect of the prosthesis, where the bicipital groove would have been, should be used as the central juncture of tuberosity reconstruction. The upper border of the pectoralis is best used to gauge appropriate height but knowing that the biceps tendon runs directly underneath the tendon insertion can also aid in estimating the proper location.

Question 1131

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 58-year-old man has a painful right hip 3 years after undergoing a large head metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty (THA) in which the components are well positioned. MR imaging confirms a cystic mass around the hip and metal ion levels show a marked increase in cobalt compared to chromium levels. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) and C-reactive protein (CRP) level are within defined limits. What is the most likely cause for his discomfort?
. Chronic periprosthetic infection
. Trochanteric bursitis
. Pseudotumor related to corrosion at the head/neck taper junction
. Tendonitis from iliopsoas tendon impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Pseudotumor related to corrosion at the head/neck taper junction


Explanation

This patient presents with a pseudotumor likely attributable to local tissue reaction resulting from either articular metal wear debris and/or corrosion and fretting of the trunnion. The trunnion is a more likely source of the problem for a number of reasons: good position of metal articulation, increased trunnion corrosion and fretting associated with large-head THA, and markedly increased cobalt levels compared to chromium levels. Infection is very unlikely in the setting of normal ESR and CRP findings. MR imaging findings are consistent with pseudotumor and not iliopsoas tendonitis or trochanteric bursitis.

Question 1132

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Torsional moments about the longitudinal axis of a total hip arthroplasty show what change during stair climbing compared with walking?
. Increase by a factor of 50% during stair climbing
. Increase by a factor of 100% during stair climbing
. Increase only during the first 6 to 8 weeks following implantation, then revert to normal
. Decrease by a factor of 50% during stair descent
. Decrease by a factor of 100% during stair descent

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increase by a factor of 100% during stair climbing


Explanation

The magnitudes of out-of-plane loads on a total hip replacement during activities of daily living can be substantial. Bergmann and associates studied these forces about two instrumented hip prostheses. They noted that the torsional moment about the hip during stair climbing is twice as high as during slow walking and that similar moments are generated during slow jogging. Higher loads were noted when the patients stumbled without falling. They also noted that the torsional moments observed in vivo were close to or even exceeded the experimentally determined limits of the torsional strength of implant fixations.

Question 1133

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 71-year-old man has worsening left hip pain and is indicated for a left total hip arthroplasty (THA). Figure 1 shows a preoperative plan for the patient. The patient is scheduled for a left THA using a direct anterior approach with the pictured implants. If this plan is followed as pictured, what is the likely outcome for this patient? Figure could not be loaded

. Successful THA with significant shortening of the operative limb
. Compromised THA with a high likelihood of persistent trochanteric bursitis
. Successful THA with significant lengthening of the operative limb
. Compromised THA with a Trendelenburg gait and hip instabilityThe focus should be on the pictured plan. This shows a medialized cup and a stem that has insufficient offset (distance between the center of rotation and a line down the center of the femoral shaft) to recreate the patient’s anatomy. The cup sets the hip center of rotation (dot in the middle of the cup), and the femoral head reduces to this point. In this patient, inadequate offset could lead to a decrease in abductor efficiency and a Trendelenburg gait and even worse dislocation due to component impingement and/or muscular insufficiency. Compromised THA with a high likelihood of persistent trochanteric bursitis would be accurate if too much offset was restored for the patient. Regarding limb lengths, it appears the height of the implant is sufficient and as it stands would likely not change the leg lengths much at all. The concepts of limb length and offset restoration are critical to performing a successful THA and limiting adverse events and poor outcomes from an acquired limb length discrepancy, limb instability or persistent trochanteric bursitis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Successful THA with significant shortening of the operative limb


Explanation

Figure 1 is the radiograph of a 73-year-old woman who had a right hip arthroplasty one year prior. Her BMI is 48. Postoperative radiographs at 6 weeks showed early stem subsidence of 4 mm compared with intraoperative radiographs. The current radiographic findings likely resulted from theA. spinal fusion.B. BMI and implant size.C. mismatch between the metaphysis and diaphysis.D. modular neck prosthesis.

Question 1134

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
When using the direct lateral (or Hardinge) approach for hip arthroplasty, three muscles are detached from the femur. In addition to the vastus lateralis, they include the
. iliopsoas and sartorius.
. piriformis and obturator internus.
. gluteus maximus and tensor fascia lata.
. gluteus minimus and rectus femoris.
. gluteus medius and gluteus minimus.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. gluteus medius and gluteus minimus.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: This approach is criticized for the episodic limp associated with the muscle detachment and reattachment. Classically, two thirds of the gluteus medius is detached as a sleeve with the vastus lateralis. This exposes the gluteus minimus and the ligament of Bigelow. These must also be detached to allow dislocation of the hip and osteotomy of the femoral neck. The rectus femoris lies medially and anteriorly and does not need to be addressed.

Question 1135

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following is considered the most appropriate indication for conversion of a hip fusion to total hip arthroplasty?
. Moderate arthritis of the ipsilateral knee
. Progressive arthritis of the contralateral hip
. Severe disabling back pain
. Limb-length discrepancy
. Increased hip motion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Severe disabling back pain


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Hip fusion provides successful long-term results (20 to 30 years). The usual mode of failure is symptomatic arthrosis of the lower back, contralateral hip, or the ipsilateral knee. Disabling low back pain is the best indication for conversion and responds well to the procedure. Degenerative changes in the other joints do not respond as well and frequently require replacement arthroplasty. Restoration of limb length is not predictable after conversion to hip replacement.

Question 1136

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
According to Musculoskeletal Infection Society (MSIS) guidelines, which set of patient laboratory study results fits the definition of chronic prosthetic joint infection?
. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 50 mm/hr, C-reactive protein (CRP) 8 mg/L, joint aspiration white blood cell (WBC) count 542, 62% neutrophils, and positive leukocyte esterase
. ESR 42 mm/hr, CRP 12 mg/L, joint aspiration WBC count 3,540, 72% neutrophils, and positive leukocyte esterase
. ESR 20 mm/hr, CRP 15 mg/L, joint aspiration WBC count 4,135, 54% neutrophils, and negative leukocyte esterase
. ESR 25 mm/hr, CRP 7 mg/L, joint aspiration WBC count 252, 82% neutrophils, and negative leukocyte esterase

Correct Answer & Explanation

. ESR 42 mm/hr, CRP 12 mg/L, joint aspiration WBC count 3,540, 72% neutrophils, and positive leukocyte esterase


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The MSIS definition of periprosthetic joint infection was updated in 2014 with two major and six minor criteria. The current MSIS minor criteria are 1) an elevated ESR (more than 30 mm/hr) and CRP level (more than 10 mg/L), 2) an elevated synovial WBC count (more than 3,000 cells/microliter), 3) an elevated synovial fluid polymorphonuclear count (more than 80%), 4) a positive histological analysis of periprosthetic tissue, and 5) a single positive culture.

Question 1137

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 57-year-old man with type I diabetes mellitus has had a tender, erythematous right sternoclavicular joint for the past 2 weeks. Radiographs reveal mild osteolysis without arthritic changes, within normal limits. Management should consist of
. MRI.
. sternoclavicular joint aspiration.
. incision and drainage.
. IV antibiotics.
. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. sternoclavicular joint aspiration.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Sternoclavicular joint sepsis is a rare condition that is most often restricted to patients who are immunocompromised, diabetic, or IV drug abusers. Examination commonly reveals a tender, painful, and possibly swollen sternoclavicular joint. If suspicion remains high following a thorough history, physical examination, radiographs, and routine blood tests, joint aspiration should be performed prior to incision and drainage or administration of antibiotics.

Question 1138

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
What is the most common indication for revision following unconstrained elbow arthroplasty?
. Polyethylene wear
. Loosening of the humeral component
. Loosening of the ulnar component
. Instability
. Component failure

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Instability


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Instability following unconstrained elbow arthroplasty occurs in 10% of patients. Subluxation is twice as common as frank dislocation; however, only 20% of these patients undergo revision. Instability following unconstrained elbow arthroplasty can be caused by component malposition or ligament insufficiency.

Question 1139

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In long-term follow-up studies of cemented total knee arthroplasty (TKA), the lowest rates of osteolysis have been associated with which design feature?

. Metal-backed patellar components
. Modular cruciate-retaining tibial inserts
. Modular cruciate-substituting tibial inserts
. Monolithic tibial trays

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metal-backed patellar components


Explanation

DISCUSSIONThe lowest reported rates of osteolysis involving cemented TKAs are associated with monolithic tibial components. Modular components and cemented metal-backed patella components are associated with a high prevalence of backside tibial insert wear and osteolysis.

Question 1140

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 56-year-old man with a 3-year history of right groin pain has failed a comprehensive nonsurgical program and would like to proceed with total hip arthroplasty. He is currently taking 40 mg of sustained-release morphine twice daily with oxycodone 10 mg 2 to 3 times a day for severe pain. What is the recommended course of action regarding his chronic narcotic use?
. Stop all his opioids 5 days before surgery, and place the patient on a morphine pain control pump postoperatively with a basal rate.
. Increase his current opioid medication regimen prior to and after surgery as needed to control his pain.
. Decrease his preoperative opioid use, and work with his pain management physician to decrease his postoperative opioid requirement.
. Avoid using narcotics in the perioperative period to prevent overdose, and use acetaminophen only for pain control.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decrease his preoperative opioid use, and work with his pain management physician to decrease his postoperative opioid requirement.


Explanation

Chronic opioid consumption prior to total joint arthroplasty has been associated with increased pain after surgery, increased opioid requirements, a slower recovery and longer hospital stay, and higher 90-day postoperative complications compared with patients not on chronic opioids preoperatively. The recommendation based on the provided literature is to decrease the patient's narcotic use prior to surgery.