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Question 1101

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figures 1 and 2 show the radiograph and CT obtained from a woman who underwent right total hip replacement. She initially did well with no pain. She was last seen 7 years ago and was having mild hip pain at that time. She was found to have a supra-acetabular cyst on radiographs. She has had severe right hip pain for the past 9 months while using a walker for ambulation. The initial blood work reveals an estimated erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 32 mm/hr, a C-reactive protein level of 5 mg/L, a serum cobalt level of 4 µg/L, and a serum chromium level of 6 µg/L. Right hip aspiration is performed, revealing a white blood cell count of 139, 52% neutrophils, and a negative leukocyte esterase test. What is the best next step?
. Acetabular revision, with placement of a custom triflange acetabular component and femoral head exchange
. Removal of the femoral and acetabular components and placement of an antibiotic spacer, with 6 weeks of intravenous antibiotics
. Head and liner exchange and retention of the femoral and acetabular implants with acetabular bone grafting
. Nonsurgical management with the initiation of bisphosphonates and referral to pain management

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular revision, with placement of a custom triflange acetabular component and femoral head exchange


Explanation

The imaging shows significant osteolysis and raises concern for pelvic discontinuity and acetabular implant failure. The surgical treatment consists of acetabular reconstruction. In this patient, concern exists for discontinuity based on the substantial amount of bone loss and nonsupportive anterior and posterior columns. This scenario requires complex acetabular revision using a custom triflange device, distraction with a jumbo acetabular component, or placement of a porous metal cup/cage construct with augmentation.

Question 1102

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figures below demonstrate the radiographs obtained from a 63-year-old man who had right total hip arthroplasty (THA) 4 months ago. Progressive stiffness began 2 months after surgery, and he now reports pain only after prolonged physical activity. His examination reveals a normal gait and painless range of motion with flexion of 70°, extension of 0°, internal rotation of 20°, external rotation of 20°, abduction of 10°, and adduction of 10°. His erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein level are within defined limits. Physical therapy has produced no benefit. What is the most appropriate next step?
. 25 mg of indomethacin 3 times daily for 6 weeks
. 1 dose of irradiation at 800 Gy
. Surgical excision of heterotopic ossification (HO)
. Reevaluation in 6 months

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reevaluation in 6 months


Explanation

This patient presents with HO 4 months after undergoing THA. Symptomatic HO may complicate nearly 7% of primary THA cases. Improvement in pain is expected within 6 months, and most patients will not need surgical treatment. Surgical excision may be warranted for symptomatic patients after full maturation of the HO, usually 6 to 18 months after the surgery. Patients can be followed with repeated serum alkaline phosphatase levels, which are elevated initially and should return to normal upon maturation of the HO. Alternatively, a bone scan can show decreased activity after the HO has matured. Twenty-five milligrams of indomethacin 3 times daily for 6 weeks or 1 dose of irradiation at 700 to 800 Gy is effective in the prevention of HO but not for the treatment of established HO.

Question 1103

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 70-year-old man has worn through his metal-backed patellar component and sustained damage to the femoral component. Following removal of the components and debridement of the metal-stained synovium, the surgeon finds that the thickness of the remaining patella is 10 mm. Treatment should now include
. insertion of a thicker cement mantle and a thicker patellar insert to achieve a total patellar thickness of 24 mm.
. a lateral release after inserting a standard patella.
. a distal femoral augmentation to maximize the moment-arm on a standard patellar insert.
. leaving the patella alone and performing a lateral release, if necessary, for proper patellar tracking.
. an oversized femoral component to improve the moment-arm on a standard patellar insert.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. leaving the patella alone and performing a lateral release, if necessary, for proper patellar tracking.


Explanation

Revision of a failed patellar component can be difficult because of bone loss and damage to the extensor mechanism. Several authors have advised against reinsertion of a patellar component if the residual patellar thickness is 10 mm or less. Leaving an unresurfaced bony remnant in place at the time of revision or reimplantation surgery has been shown to be a reasonable option; however, the results are of a lower quality when compared with revision surgery where the patellar component can be retained or revised.

Question 1104

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 78-year-old woman undergoes an uneventful semiconstrained total elbow arthroplasty through a Bryan-Morrey approach. Her immediate postoperative management should include which of the following? Review Topic

. Five days of intravenous antibiotics for perioperative prophylaxis
. Use of continuous passive motion beginning on postoperative day one
. Immediate initiation of active flexion and gravity-assisted passive extension
. Splinting at 60 to 90 degrees of flexion for 5 to 10 days, followed by initiation of active flexion and gravity-assisted passive extension
. Splinting at 60 to 90 degrees of flexion until the triceps has healed, followed by initiation of active flexion and extension

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Five days of intravenous antibiotics for perioperative prophylaxis


Explanation

Postoperative management of total elbow arthroplasty patients is directed to avoidance of complications commonly associated with this procedure. Following total elbow arthroplasty, 24 hours of perioperative antibiotics should be given, consistent with other arthroplasty procedures. Because of the relatively thin soft-tissue envelope surrounding the elbow, particularly in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, consideration must be given to the surrounding soft tissues postoperatively. The surgical wound should be given several days of quiescence prior to initiation of motion to minimize wound healing complications. Splinting at 60 to 90 degrees allows tension to be removed from the soft tissues. Immediate motion places these tissues under immediate stress; immobilization of the elbow for 6 to 8 weeks until the triceps has healed would result in significant stiffness. Splinting should not be used more than 10 days to avoid stiffness of the elbow.

Question 1105

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Figures 1 and 2 demonstrate the radiographs obtained from a 35-year-old woman with end-stage debilitating osteoarthritis of the right hip. She is contemplating total hip arthroplasty (THA). She has a history of right hip dysplasia and underwent hip osteotomy as an adolescent. Over the years, nonsurgical treatment, including weight loss, activity modifications, and intra-articular injections, has failed. Her infection work-up reveals laboratory findings within defined limits.The patient undergoes successful primary THA with a metal-on-metal bearing. At 1-year follow-up, she reports no pain and is highly satisfied with the procedure. However, 3 years after the index procedure, she reports atraumatic right hip pain that worsens with activities. Radiographs reveal the implants in good position with no sign of loosening or lysis. An initial laboratory evaluation reveals a normal sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein (CRP) level. The most appropriate next diagnostic step is

. MRI with metal artifact reduction sequence (MARS) only.
. serum cobalt only.
. serum cobalt and chromium levels.
. serum cobalt and chromium levels and MRI with MARS.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MRI with metal artifact reduction sequence (MARS) only.


Explanation

THA has proven to be durable and reliable for pain relief and improvement of function in patients with end-stage arthritis. Appropriate bearing selection is critical to minimize wear and hip complications. Ametal-on-metal articulation is associated with excellent wear rates in vitro. Because it offers a low wear rate with large femoral heads, it is an attractive bearing choice for THA. However, local soft-tissue reactions, pseudotumors, and potential systemic reactions—including renal failure, cardiomyopathy, carcinogenesis, and potential teratogenesis after the possible transfer of metal ions across the placental barrier—make metal-on-metal bearings less desirable and relatively contraindicated for younger women of child-bearing age.The work-up of a painful metal-on-metal hip arthroplasty necessitates a systematic approach. Several algorithms have been proposed. Routine laboratory studies including the erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein (CRP) level, and serum cobalt and chromium ion levels should be obtained for all patients with pain. Advanced imaging, including MRI with MARS, should be performed to evaluate for the presence of fluid collections, pseudotumors, and abductor mechanism destruction. Infection can coexist with metal-on-metal reactions, so when indicated (if the CRP level is elevated), a hip arthrocentesis should be obtained. However, in this setting, a manual cell count and differential should be obtained because an automated cell counter may provide falsely elevated cell counts. The results of revision surgery for a failed metal-on-metal hip prosthesis can be variable. The amount of local tissue destruction and the integrity of the hip abductor mechanism can greatly influence outcomes. Instability is the most common complication following a revision of failed metal-on-metal hip replacements.

Question 1106

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
The direct anterior (Smith-Peterson) approach to hip arthroplasty is most commonly associated with injury to what nerve?
. Lateral femoral cutaneous
. Sciatic
. Pudendal
. Superior gluteal

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral cutaneous


Explanation

Some authors have reported the incidence of lateral femoral cutaneous nerve neuropraxia following hip arthroplasty with the direct anterior approach to be near 80%, though resolution of sensory deficits is typically observed over time.

Question 1107

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In hybrid arthroplasty, the use of a polymethylmethacrylate (PMMA) precoated femoral component has been shown to result in:
. increased survivorship compared with nonprecoated stems.
. increased bonding of the stem to the cement mantle.
. a reduced rate of wear compared with nonprecoated stems.
. a reduced rate of revision compared with nonprecoated stems.
. a reduced rate of postoperative infection.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. increased bonding of the stem to the cement mantle.


Explanation

Precoating of the femoral stem with PMMA results in increased bonding of the stem to the cement mantle. However, this has not been shown to result in superior survivorship compared with nonprecoated stems of similar design.

Question 1108

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figures 17a and 17b show the AP and lateral radiographs of a 75-year-old woman who reports giving way and shifting of the knee, particularly when she is descending stairs or ambulating on level surfaces. History reveals a total knee replacement 5 years ago. Treatment should consist of
. extra-articular ligament repair.
. resection arthroplasty with a cement spacer.
. revision of the tibial tray.
. revision of the patella to an all-polyethylene component.
. revision to a posterior cruciate-substituting implant.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. revision to a posterior cruciate-substituting implant.


Explanation

The radiographs show well-fixed components of a posterior cruciate-retaining total knee replacement. The relative position of the femoral component is anteriorly subluxated relative to the tibial component. The AP radiograph shows that the articular space is markedly asymmetric, indicating either failure or fracture of the polyethylene or subluxation of the femur relative to the tibia. The patient’s symptoms suggest a failure of the posterior cruciate ligament that is consistent with the radiographic findings; therefore, the treatment of choice is revision to a posterior cruciate-substituting implant.

Question 1109

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Early postoperative infections following primary total hip arthroplasty are most likely caused by which organism?
. Staphylococcus epidermidis
. Streptococcus viridans
. Propionibacterium acnes
. Staphylococcus aureus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Staphylococcus aureus


Explanation

S. aureus is the most common organism cultured in early (fewer than 4 weeks postoperative) periprosthetic infections. Methicillin-resistant S. aureus is becoming a more common pathogen in certain patient populations. Beta-hemolytic Streptococcus and some gram-negative infections can also be found in early postoperative infections. S. epidermidis, S. viridans, and P. acnes are more commonly found in late (more than 4 weeks postoperative) infections.

Question 1110

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 67-year-old woman undergoes a revision total shoulder arthroplasty for replacement of a loose glenoid component. Examination in the recovery room reveals absent voluntary deltoid and triceps contraction, weakness of wrist and thumb extension, and absent sensation in the palmar aspect of all fingertips and the radial forearm. The next most appropriate step in management should consist of:
. an immediate return to the operating room to explore the brachial plexus.
. immediate electromyography and nerve conduction velocity studies.
. MRI of the brachial plexus.
. MRI of the cervical spine.
. immobilization in a sling, followed by early passive range of motion.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. immobilization in a sling, followed by early passive range of motion.


Explanation

Neurologic injury after shoulder replacement is relatively uncommon. The presumed mechanism of injury is traction on the plexus that occurs during the surgery. A neurologic injury after total shoulder arthroplasty usually does not interfere with the long-term outcome of the arthroplasty itself; it is best managed by protective measures with passive range of motion of the involved extremity.

Question 1111

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Figure 62a and Figure 62b

. Nerve palsy
. Skin necrosis
. Flexion instability
. Patellar instability
. Anterior knee pain
. Malalignment

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Malalignment


Explanation

DISCUSSIONFigure 58 reveals a posttraumatic valgus deformity. Correction of valgus with lateral soft-tissue release places tension on the peroneal nerve, resulting in an increased risk for nerve palsy. Figures 59a (lateral view) and 59b (Merchant view) illustrate juvenile rheumatoid arthritis with tibiofibular fusion and lateral patellar dislocation. Chronic patellar dislocation is associated with contracture of the lateral retinacular soft tissues and increased risk for patellar subluxation or dislocation after TKA. Extensor mechanism realignment, possibly including tibial tubercle osteotomy and/or proximal soft-tissue realignment, may be required during TKA to centralize the extensor mechanism. Figures 60a (anteroposterior [AP] view) and 60b (lateral view) reveal a fused knee in full extension.TKA after fusion is associated with multiple complications including skin necrosis, infection, and instability. The skin is contracted because of limited knee motion and has multiple scars (Figure 60c). Mobilization of the skin during and after knee arthroplasty can place excess tension on the soft tissues, resulting in skin necrosis and infection. Treatment consisting of prompt debridement and soft-tissue coverage, usually with medial gastrocnemius muscle transposition, is required. Figure 61 shows a knee with prior tibial tubercle fixation and marked patella infera. Shortening of the patellar ligament is associated with restricted knee motion. This may necessitate more extensile exposure using tibial tubercle osteotomy or rectus snip during TKA to obtain adequate surgical exposure. The inferior position of the patella can cause impingement between the patellar component and tibial insert, resulting in anterior knee pain. Restoring a more normal position of the patella may necessitate distal positioning of the femoral component as well as tibial tubercle osteotomy with proximal recession of the osteotomized tibial tubercle. Figures 62a (AP view of the distal femur) and 62b (AP view of the proximal femur) show a posttraumatic deformity with a large retained intramedullary rod. There is a varus distal femoral deformity that is not severe enough to necessitate extra-articular corrective osteotomy. However, intramedullary hardware precludes use of conventional intramedullary instrumentation, so computer navigation or patient-specific cutting guides will be necessary to orient the bone cuts and avoid implant malalignment.

Question 1112

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Patients with ankylosing spondylitis undergoing total knee arthroplasty are likely to experience which of the following complications?
. Infection
. Instability
. Heterotopic ossification
. Periprosthetic fracture
. Patellar loosening

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Heterotopic ossification


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Patients with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) are likely to have achieved significant pain relief and improvement in function following total knee arthroplasty (TKA). These patients, however, are also likely to experience a higher incidence of complications, particularly stiffness and heterotopic ossification (HO). In one series, the incidence of HO following TKA in patients with AS was 20%. REFERENCES: Parvizi J, Duffy GP, Trousdale RT: Total knee arthroplasty in patients with ankylosing spondylitis. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2001;83:1312-1316. Fintersbush A, Amir D, Vatashki E, et al: Joint surgery in severe ankylosing spondylitis. Acta Orthop Scand 1988;59:491-496.

Question 1113

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 44-year-old woman has bilateral knee pain, and history reveals bilateral hip replacements. Radiographs are seen in Figure 28a, and histopathologic specimens from the total hip replacement are shown in Figures 28b and 28c. Laboratory studies reveal anemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Osteoarthritis
. Rheumatoid arthritis
. Pigmented villonodular synovitis
. Charcot arthropathy
. Paget’s disease

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rheumatoid arthritis


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Rheumatoid arthritis is an inflammatory arthritis that usually involves multiple joints. Radiologic findings of periarticular erosion, osteopenia, and minimal osteophyte formation favor rheumatoid arthritis over osteoarthritis. Pigmented villonodular synovitis and Charcot arthropathy are more often considered monoarticular diseases. There are no radiographic findings of Paget’s disease. REFERENCE: Dutkowsky J: Miscellaneous non traumatic disorders, in Crenshaw A (ed): Campbell’s Operative Orthopaedics. St Louis, MO, Mosby, 1992, pp 2007-2012.

Question 1114

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Figure 1 shows the radiograph obtained from a 67-year-old man recently diagnosed with osteoarthritis, 8 years after receiving a left metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty (THA). The acetabular component has a modular cobalt alloy acetabular liner. The patient states that he did very well postoperatively, but for the last 6 months has noted worsening pain and swelling in his left hip. Serum metal ion testing reveals a chromium level of 12.4 ng/mL, compared with a normal level of less than 0.3 ng/mL, and a cobalt level of 11.8 ng/mL, compared with a normal level less than 0.7 ng/mL. An MRI with metal artefact reduction sequence (MARS) was performed and is shown in Figure 2. What is the most appropriate management at this time?
. Annual monitoring of serum metal ion levels
. Repeated MRI with MARS in 6 months
. Conversion of the THA to a cobalt alloy femoral head and polyethylene bearing
. Conversion of the THA to a ceramic femoral head with an inner titanium sleeve and polyethylene bearing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Conversion of the THA to a ceramic femoral head with an inner titanium sleeve and polyethylene bearing


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Metal-on-metal THA was initially introduced in the 1990s, with the proposed advantages of decreased wear and improved stability. However, catastrophic adverse local tissue reactions associated with their use has raised numerous concerns. The work-up of a patient with a prior metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty involves a thorough history and physical examination; blood analysis, including the erythrocyte sedimentation rate, C-reactive protein, and metal ion levels; and secondary imaging, including ultrasonography, CT, and MRI. In a patient with clinical symptoms, elevated metal ion levels, and a large fluid collection seen on MRI, the most appropriate treatment would be removal of the metal-on-metal bearing. Given the presence of an adverse reaction involving cobalt and chromium, a revision ceramic head may be most appropriate to avoid the potential of trunnion-associated corrosion.

Question 1115

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

The best indication for a knee fusion after a failed total knee replacement is

. Aseptic loosening in a 70-year-old patient
. Mechanical failure of a hinged knee prosthesis
. Failed knee replacement complicated by reflex sympathetic dystrophy
. Infection with soft-tissue deficit
. A prior patellectomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Infection with soft-tissue deficit


Explanation

Knee arthrodesis rather than reimplantation should be considered a) following failure of a primary knee prosthetic arthroplasty when the extensor mechanism is insufficient, b) in the immuno-compromised patient, c) in the knee with poor soft tissue coverage, d) when the causative microorganism in the infected prosthetic knee is particularly virulent which may be sensitive to only toxic antimicrobials. It should also be considered in the relatively young patient with high functional demands, whose arthritic process only involves one joint.

Question 1116

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Below are the radiographs and the CT obtained from a woman who underwent cementless left total hip arthroplasty. Nine months after surgery, she continued to have groin pain when actively flexing her hip. She has trouble walking up stairs and getting out of her car. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Trochanteric bursitis
. Femoral component loosening
. Iliopsoas tendonitis
. Acetabular component loosening

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopsoas tendonitis


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Groin pain after total hip replacement has a number of possible causes, and an exact diagnosis may remain elusive in some patients. Infection should be ruled out with laboratory studies and, if indicated, diagnostic aspiration of the hip joint. Implant loosening should be evaluated by plain radiograph and bone scan, if indicated. Synovitis resulting from wear debris should be considered in patients with polyethylene liners who experience late-onset symptoms or in any patient with a metal-on-metal bearing. This patient's symptoms are classic for iliopsoas tendonitis. Physical examination usually reveals pain and weakness with resisted hip flexion. A cross-table lateral radiograph and CT show that the anterior edge of the acetabulum protrudes beyond the anterior wall, thereby acting as a source of iliopsoas tendon irritation. In such cases, acetabular component revision and repositioning are indicated. Fluoroscope-guided iliopsoas cortisone injection can help to establish the diagnosis and relieve groin pain. If the acetabular component is well positioned, then iliopsoas tenotomy should be considered.

Question 1117

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 17 shows the AP radiograph of a 75-year-old man with right hip pain. The femoral component is loose. The mechanism of loosening is most likely secondary to
. osteolysis.
. fatigue failure of the implant.
. failure of bone ingrowth.
. wear debris from cerclage wire.
. trochanteric impingement.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. failure of bone ingrowth.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The femoral construct shown in the radiograph has failed to produce ingrowth of the stem. The stem has subsided and rotated. Impingement of the trochanter did not occur until after the stem subsided. There is no evidence of osteolysis or third-body wear debris from the cerclage wire. A larger femoral stem needs to be implanted to achieve rigid fixation.

Question 1118

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 67-year-old woman has a painful, arthritic proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint, and nonsurgical measures have failed to improve the pain. What implant and joint replacement approach combination has been demonstrated to have the lowest rate of revision surgery?
. Silicone replacement arthroplasty through a volar approach
. Surface replacement arthroplasty through a volar approach
. Silicone replacement arthroplasty through a dorsal approach
. Surface replacement arthroplasty through a dorsal approach

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Silicone replacement arthroplasty through a volar approach


Explanation

EXPLANATION: A recent systematic review compared silicone replacement, pyrocarbon replacement, and surface replacement arthroplasty for PIP arthritis. Silicone arthroplasty through a volar approach showed the greatest gains in arc of motion and had the lowest rate of revision surgeries. The rates of revision surgeries from low to high for each type of arthroplasty were 6% for silicone volar, 10% for silicone lateral, 11% for silicone dorsal, 18% for surface replacement dorsal, and 37% for surface replacement volar. Revision surgeries include implant replacement, arthrodesis, explantation, amputation, and other procedures.

Question 1119

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
  • Figure 67 shows the AP radiograph of both knees of a 26-year-old woman. A review of the patient’s medical record will most likely reveal a history of
. Trauma
. Hemophilia
. Reiter’s syndrome
. Rheumatoid arthritis
. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Systemic lupus erythematosus


Explanation

Avascular necrosis of the knee is associated with the use of corticosteroids or alcohol 90% of the time. Radiographically evident lesions progress until the necrotic cancellous bone collapses away from the subchondral plate, resulting in the classic crescent sign; earliest sign of mechanical failure of the condyles. Generally seen in a younger age group (less than 50 years old). Of patients with corticosteroid induced AVN of the knee; 81% have systemic lupus erythematosus, 9.5% inflammatory bowel disease, and 9.5% polymyositis.

Question 1120

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Joint contact pressure in normal or artificial joints can best be minimized by what mechanism?
. Increasing joint force and contact area
. Increasing joint force and decreasing contact area
. Decreasing joint force and contact area
. Decreasing joint force and increasing contact area
. Decreasing joint force only

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreasing joint force and increasing contact area


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Joint contact pressure is a stress and as such is defined as the load transferred across the joint divided by the contact area between the joint surfaces (the area over which the joint load is distributed). Therefore, any mechanism that decreases the load across the joint (e.g., a walking aid) will decrease the stress. Similarly, any mechanism that increases the area over which the load is distributed (e.g., using a more conforming set of articular surfaces in a knee joint arthroplasty) will also decrease the stress. Other mechanisms that influence joint contact pressure include the elastic modulus of the materials (cartilage in the case of natural joints and polyethylene in joint arthroplasty) and the thickness of the structures through which the joint loads pass.