This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1161
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following factors is most likely to predispose a patient to dislocation of the patellar component following total knee arthoplasty?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Internal rotation of the femoral component
Explanation
The experimental data for this answer came from Anouchi et al The Effects of Axial Rotational Alignment of the Femoral Component on Knee Stability and Patellar Tracking in Total Knee Arthroplasty Demonstrated on Autopsy Specimens. This study looked at knee stability, patellar tracking, and patellofemoral contact points with the femoral component positioned in 5 degrees internal, 5 degrees external, and neutral alignment in relation to the posterior femoral condyles. Total knee arthroplasty was performed on four cadavaric specimens without lateral release.Internally rotating the femoral component produced abnormal laxity seen at 30, 60, and 90 degrees of flexion. There was no gapping noted in the neutral or externally rotated specimens.The normal pattern for patellar tracking was a gentle curve with maximal deflection at 15 and 60 degrees of flexion. The maximal medial displacement were lowest for the externally rotated specimens.Although contact areas could not be quantitatively measured accurately, the contact areas were more evenly distributed between the medial and lateral sides of the patella in the externally rotated specimens than they were in either the internally rotated or neutral specimens.You have to be careful interpreting this data at least in reference to knee stability. In this study a perpendicular tibial cut was made. The normal tibia has a 30 degree varus slope and thus more bone is resected from the lateral surface. External rotation of the femoral component compensates for this.No tests were done with lateral placement of the femoral component or medial placement of the patellar component.
Question 1162
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
Figures 174a and 174b are the radiograph and clinical photograph of a 64-year-old obese woman (body mass index [BMI] of 48) who has controlled diabetes and hypertension. She has failed nonsurgical treatment and a weight loss program. She is considering total knee arthroplasty (TKA). What is the most significant postsurgical risk for this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Dissatisfaction after TKA
Explanation
DISCUSSIONThe literature has demonstrated increased risk for complications among obese patients undergoing TKA (10%-30%). An evaluation of TKA among obese patients revealed 3- to 9-fold higher incidence of wound complications and deep-seated infection. Belmont and associates demonstrated that patients with a BMI higher than 40 are at higher risk for overall complications than patients with a BMI lower than 25, with a particularly high risk for developing local wound complications and infection. An increased risk for thromboembolic complications was not shown among obese patients undergoing TKA. Patient-reported outcome scores among obese patients undergoing TKA are equivalent to those of nonobesepatients. There are conflicting data regarding the outcome and survivorship following TKA for obese patients. Although some studies show a difference in patient-reported outcomes at differing postsurgical intervals, most obese patients undergoing TKA are satisfied with the procedure.
Question 1163
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following factors is associated with improved outcomes following surgery for hip fractures?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Immediate surgical intervention
Explanation
Many studies have looked at patient outcomes following hip fracture surgery. While early surgery in these patients is recommended, medical optimization prior to surgical intervention is warranted in all cases. Anesthetic type and discharge status have not been proven to alter patient outcomes. Total hip arthroplasty has improved function at 1 year compared with hemiarthroplasty; no changes in mortality have been reported.
Question 1164
Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A 70-year-old woman has a 3-year history of gradually increasing diffuse and global right knee pain. Her main issues are difficulty with stairs, stiffness with prolonged sitting, and swelling. She has taken NSAIDs and has received intra-articular steroid injections, all with decreasing efficacy. Her right knee examination reveals a range of motion of 15° to 80° with a fixed deformity to varus and valgus stress. Her symptoms are no longer manageable nonsurgically. Radiographs reveal a 30-degree mechanical axis deformity. When using the measured resection technique during total knee arthroplasty (TKA), the best way to avoid femoral malrotation is to reference the
Correct Answer & Explanation
. anteroposterior axis.
Explanation
DISCUSSION: In the setting of valgus deformities, TKA poses different challenges than those encountered when varus deformities are present. Most valgus alignment is attributable to a deformity of the distal femur rather than of the proximal tibia, as seen in varus knees. One of the major anatomical differences is a hypoplastic lateral femoral condyle which, when not recognized and used as a rotational reference point, can lead to internal rotation of the femoral component. This malrotation in turn leads to patellofemoral maltracking or instability, which is a common complication associated with primary TKA. The anteroposterior (Whiteside's) axis is a reliable reference for femoral rotation.
Question 1165
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
What is the most important preoperative factor predicting conversion to total hip arthroplasty after arthroscopic surgery of the hip?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Morbid obesity
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The authors cited in the references examined large databases to determine the risk factors for conversion to total hip arthroplasty after arthroscopic surgery of the hip. In the study by Kester and associates, obesity had an odds ratio (OR) of 5.6 for conversion to hip arthroplasty, whereas age over 60 years had an OR of 3.8. Diagnosis of osteoarthritis is also a significant factor, but obesity is often cited as the strongest predictor in these studies.
Question 1166
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 27 shows the AP radiograph of a patient who has late instability. The problem most likely occurred as a result of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. wear.
Explanation
DISCUSSION: Although dislocation can occur anytime after hip arthroplasty, the highest incidence is observed within the first few months. Dislocation occurring many years after arthroplasty has also been described. The presumed etiologic factors for late instability include long-standing problems with the prosthesis (such as malpositioning of the components) with late manifestation, trauma, deterioration in the neurologic status of the patient, and polyethylene wear. The eccentric position of the femoral head in this patient confirms polyethylene wear. The femoral stem is well-fixed, and the greater trochanter osteotomy has united well. The minor osteolysis observed around the proximal femur is also the consequence of wear and is not the cause of instability.
Question 1167
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Wear particles of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene that are generated by total hip implants are predominantly of what diameter?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Less than 1 micron
Explanation
DISCUSSION: Multiple studies have shown that the size of an ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene particle generated by total hip implants is typically less than 1 micron. This finding is significant in that particles of that size are readily phagocytized by macrophages. REFERENCES: Campbell P, Ma S, Yeom B, McKellop H, Schmalzried TP, Amstutz HC: Isolation of predominantly submicron-sized UHMWPE wear particles from periprosthetic tissues. J Biomed Mater Res 1995;29:127-131. Shanbhag AS, Jacobs JJ, Glant TT, Gilbert JL, Black J, Galante JO: Composition and morphology of wear debris in failed uncemented total hip replacement. J Bone Joint Surg Br 1994;76:60-67. Maloney WJ, Smith RL, Schmalzried TP, Chiba J, Huene D, Rubash H: Isolation and characterization of wear particles generated in patients who have had failure of a hip arthroplasty without cement. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1995;77:1301-1310.
Question 1168
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
At a minimum 2-year follow-up and compared with the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint, pyrolytic carbon resurfacing arthroplasties of the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint
Correct Answer & Explanation
. result in more dislocations.
Explanation
EXPLANATION: Wall and Stern published a report on MCP joint pyrolytic carbon arthroplasty for osteoarthritis and another on PIP joint pyrolytic carbon resurfacing arthroplasty for osteoarthritis. They found different outcomes, and MCP joint implants outperformed PIP joint implants. Of eleven MCP joint arthroplasties, two produced asymptomatic squeaking and clicking, whereas eleven of 31 PIP joint implants produced this problem. No dislocations were reported among the MCP joint implants, but five PIP joint dislocations were observed. Outcomes were measured by the Michigan Hand Outcomes Questionnaire in both studies and were satisfactory for the MCP joint implants, with an average score of 80. The PIP implants did not fare as well, showing a higher degree of pain along with an average score of 53. The authors noted that, in the 15 patients in the PIP study who had unilateral surgery, the uninvolved, nonsurgical hand motion was actually statistically significantly (P<0.01) better than the surgical hand. MCP joint motion increased from 62º before surgery to 76º after surgery, whereas PIP joint motion got worse after surgery, with the average motion decreasing from 57º to 31º.
Question 1169
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 37 reveals a periprosthetic fracture around a cemented femoral stem in an 81-year-old patient with Paget’s disease and mild coagulopathy. What is the most appropriate reconstructive management on the femoral side?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Proximal femoral replacement (PFR)
Explanation
Discussion: This is an example of a Vancouver B3 periprosthetic fracture that consists of a fracture around a loose femoral stem with poor proximal bone support. Therefore, open reduction and internal fixation is not an option. PFR is an excellent choice for elderly inactive patients with poor femoral bone stock. The surgery can be performed in an expeditious manner, which is very important in a patient with mild coagulopathy.
Question 1170
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
An infected total knee replacement with symptoms occurring within 4 weeks of surgery and no radiographic signs of osteomyelitis would be best managed with
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Knee fusion
Explanation
Treatment of an early infection demands thorough debridement of the wound and appropriate parenteral antibiotics. Systemic treatment with appropriate antimicrobial agents should continue for a minimum of 4 weeks following debridement for an early infection. An infection diagnosed later than 4 weeks following surgery is less likely to have a successful result without removal of the components. OKU V pg. 490.Arthroscopic debridement not recommended secondary to missing cutaneous tracks and soft tissue/muscle involvement.
Question 1171
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 72-year-old woman is scheduled to undergo right total hip arthroplasty. Her preoperative radiograph is shown in the figure below. To avoid increasing this patient’s combined offset while maintaining her leg length, what is the most appropriate surgical plan?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Medialize the acetabular component, use a low offset femoral component, and make a longer neck cut
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The management of patients with proximal femoral deformity can be difficult. Appropriate implant selection and preoperative templating are critical. In this patient, it would be difficult to avoid increasing the combined offset by too much, which could contribute to the overtensioning of the soft tissues and trochanteric pain. By medializing the acetabular component (decreasing the combined offset), using a low offset femoral component or a cemented component placed more valgus (decreasing the combined offset), and making a longer neck cut (to avoid shortening of the lower extremity), restoration of the patient’s native offset and leg length can be achieved.
Question 1172
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
What is the average linear wear rate of a conventional, noncross-linked ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene liner used in total hip arthroplasty?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 0.1 to 0.2 mm/yr
Explanation
DISCUSSION: Several studies have shown that ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene liners used in total hip arthroplasties wear at a rate of 0.1 to 0.2 mm/yr. The orthopaedic surgeon performing total hip arthroplasties should be aware of the average wear rate so that potential problems can be identified when following patients postoperatively. REFERENCES: Callaghan JJ, Albright JC, Goetz DD, Olejniczak JP, Johnston RC: Charnley total hip arthroplasty with cement: Minimum twenty-five year follow-up. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2000;82:487-497. Isaac GH, Wroblewski BM, Atkinson JR, Dowson D: A tribological study of retrieved hip prostheses. Clin Orthop 1992;276:115-125.
Question 1173
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Pulsatile bleeding is encountered after placing a retractor anterior to the acetabulum while exposing for reaming during total hip arthroplasty (THA). What vascular structure is likely affected?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Ascending branches of the lateral femoral circumflex artery
Explanation
After a fall 2 months ago, an 82-year-old woman presents with the inability to straighten her leg. She has had several subsequent falls. She had a successful primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA) 3 years ago. AP and lateral radiographs are shown Figures 1 and 2. On examination, she has a 45° extensor lag, no significant pain and good knee stability. She can flex to 110° without difficulty. A full allograft reconstruction versus synthetic mesh reconstruction are the two options discussed with the patient and family. What is the difference between the two surgical options?
Question 1174
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 75-year-old woman who fell on her right knee now reports pain and is unable to bear weight. History reveals that she underwent total knee arthroplasty on the right knee 6 years ago. Radiographs are shown in Figure 5. Management should now consist of
Correct Answer & Explanation
. open reduction and internal fixation and revision of the femoral component.
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The radiographs show a loose femoral component with an associated medial condyle distal femoral fracture. The treatment of choice is open reduction and internal fixation with revision of the femoral component because of the femoral component loosening. REFERENCES: Moran MC, Brick GW, Sledge CB, et al: Supracondylar femoral fracture following total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1996;324:196-209. McLaren AC, DuPont JA, Schroeber DC: Open reduction internal fixation of supracondylar fractures above total knee arthroplasties using the intramedullary supracondylar rod. Clin Orthop 1994;302:194-198. Figgie MP, Goldberg VM, Figgie HE III, et al: The results of treatment of supracondylar fracture above total knee arthroplasty. J Arthroplasty 1990;5:267-276.
Question 1175
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 1 shows the radiograph obtained from a 78-year-old woman who has a recent history of increasing thigh pain 12 years after undergoing total hip arthroplasty. Figure 2 depicts the radiograph obtained after she fell and was unable to ambulate. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Femoral revision with an uncemented long stem
Explanation
The surgical treatment of periprosthetic fractures of total hip replacement with a loose implant and progressive bone loss is associated with a high complication rate. The recent literature would favor the use of long "Wagner-type" stems, which have a long distal taper that may optimally engage the remaining femoral shaft isthmus. Plating options are problematic, because the intramedullary stem limits the ability to use screws with the plate. Using long distally fixed stems circumvents this problem by enhancing fracture healing and creating a long-term prosthetic solution in these most difficult cases.
Question 1176
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
The patient is planning on having his contralateral knee replaced as well. He has a mild valgus deformity in his left knee with an overall windswept deformity. Which release is most appropriate in this case if the knee remains tight in extension?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Semimembranosis release
Explanation
DISCUSSIONBalancing a total knee is important for longevity of the device and functional benefit. The surgeon should be systematic in the release of a varus knee. The deep MCL is typically released as part of the approach and osteophytes are then removed. The semimembranosus tendon can then be released from the posterior medial aspect of the tibia. A downsizing osteotomy can be considered for a large deformity if a patient has adequate tibial sizing. If a patient has the smallest implant available prior to the osteotomy, an osteotomy will lead to overhang of the implant and medial impingement on the MCL.A valgus knee can be treated with pie crusting of the iliotibial band in mild extension deformity. Surgeons should pause prior to taking down the popliteus and lateral collateralligament because this can induce posterior rotatory subluxation of a primary knee, especially in the case of a posterior collateral ligament-sacrificing total knee arthroplasty design.
Question 1177
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
below depict the radiographs obtained from a year-old woman who comes to the emergency department after experiencing a fall. She is an unassisted community ambulator with a history of right hip pain. What is the most appropriate surgical treatment for this fracture?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cemented unipolar hemiarthroplasty B. Cemented bipolar hemiarthroplasty C. Total hip replacement
Explanation
DISCUSSION:This patient has pre-existing right hip osteoarthritis. The most correct option for the treatment of this active patient is a right total hip arthroplasty. Hemiarthroplasty would not address the patient's pain from osteoarthritis, and open reduction and internal fixation would not fix the femoral head issue or theosteoarthritis.
Question 1178
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
The diagnosis of an infection after total knee arthroplasty is most reliably proven based on what single study?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Aspiration of joint fluid
Explanation
DISCUSSION: In a study of 52 patients with infected total knee arthroplasties, Windsor and associates showed that the average leukocyte count was 8,300/mm3 and that aspirated knee fluid was positive in all patients except one. Knee radiographs can be unclear in showing infection, which may be present without radiographic signs of loosening. Technetium Tc 99m and gallium bone scans may not conclusively show the presence of infection, particularly in the first 3 years after knee arthroplasty.
Question 1179
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
The concept of an “effective joint space” surrounding a prosthetic hip replacement refers to the
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Extent of bone penetrated by reaming, prosthetic components, or acrylic cement
Explanation
The term “effective joint space” was initiated in the article that this question was referenced from. It is defined as all the regions that are accessible to joint fluid. The significance of the effective joint space is that patterns of joint fluid flow (preferential flow) will determine the concentration and pattern of particulate wear debris. Where there is wear debris there is the potential for lytic and linear bone loss secondary to macrophage concentrations.
Question 1180
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 70-year-old man underwent primary total knee arthroplasty 3 months ago. Figures 7a and 7b show the radiograph and clinical photograph following incision and drainage of the wound 1 week ago. Aspiration of the joint reveals methicillin-sensitive Staphylococcus aureus. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Delayed exchange reimplantation
Explanation
DISCUSSION: The overriding factor determining treatment in this case is the appearance of the surgical wound. Based on MacPhearson’s work, this “C” wound is best managed with two-stage exchange. The functional outcome is markedly diminished following a knee arthrodesis compared to revision knee arthroplasty. REFERENCES: Harwin SF: The diagnosis and management of infected total knee replacement. Seminars Arthroplasty 2002;13:9-22. Goldmann RT, Scuderi GR, Insall JN: 2-stage reimplantation for infected total knee replacement. Clin Orthop 1996;331:118-124. Morrey BF, Westholm F, Schoifet S, Rand JA, Bryan RS: Long-term results of various treatment options for an infected total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1989;248:120-128.
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