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Question 921

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Compared with wear rates of metal-on-standard polyethylene bearings (75 to 250 µm/y), the wear rate of metal-on-metal bearings for hip arthroplasty is approximately how many micrometers per year?
. Less than 0.5
. 2 to 5
. 5 to 20
. 20 to 50
. 50 to 150

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 2 to 5


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Studies on older systems, as well as newer designs, have confirmed that metal-on-metal bearing surfaces undergo linear wear of 2 to 5 µm per year. Ceramic bearing surfaces produced with recent technology perform even better, with a wear rate of 0.5 to 2.5 µm per year. Clinical wear rates of metal-on-crosslinked polyethylene have not yet been determined. REFERENCES: McKellop H, Park SH, Chiesa R, et al: In vivo wear of three types of metal on metal hip prostheses during two decades of use. Clin Orthop 1996;329:S128-S140. Schmalzried TP, Callaghan JJ: Wear in total hip and knee replacements. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1999;81:115-136.

Question 922

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
When compared to patients with osteoarthritis, patients with ankylosing spondylitis undergoing total hip arthroplasty can expect a
. decreased risk of heterotopic ossification.
. higher hip pain score.
. lower level of functional return.
. comparable infection rate.
. comparable level of blood loss.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. comparable infection rate.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Joshi and associates reported a 96% incidence of pain relief in 181 total hip arthroplasties in patients with ankylosing spondylitis. Only 65% of patients had good to excellent functional results, primarily the result of associated systemic diseases and spinal deformity. The incidence of infection was slightly higher, and the incidence of heterotopic ossification was higher in this group of patients.

Question 923

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 60-year-old woman reports a painful hip arthroplasty after undergoing surgery 18 months ago. Radiographs show stable cementless implants without signs of ingrowth. Laboratory studies show an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 50 mm/h. Management should now consist of
. a technetium Tc 99m scan.
. an indium scan.
. an ultrasound examination.
. aspiration.
. revision.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. aspiration.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Significant elevation of the erythrocyte sedimentation rate in a patient with a painful hip arthroplasty mandates a complete work-up for infection prior to considering revision surgery. Reproducibility and reliability of ultrasonography as a diagnostic test still needs clarification. Aspiration is the easiest and most cost-effective test and should be performed prior to nuclear imaging. The latter is most valuable if the results are negative, strongly predicting the absence of infection. REFERENCES: Barrack RL, Harris WH: The value of aspiration of the hip joint before revision total hip arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:66-76. McAuley JP, Moreau G: Sepsis: Etiology, prophylaxis, and diagnosis, in Callaghan JJ, Rosenberg AG, Rubash HE (eds): The Adult Hip. Philadelphia, PA, Lippincott-Raven, 1998, pp 1295-1306.

Question 924

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
When using highly cross-linked ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene as an articulating surface for total knee arthroplasty, what property of the material raises concern?
. Decreased volumetric wear
. Decreased ductility
. Increased mobility of the ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene chains in the material
. Increased fatigue resistance
. Increased fracture toughness

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased ductility


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The decreased mobility of the polymer chains from cross-linking leads to decreased volumetric wear but also to decreases in ductility and fatigue resistance. Stresses at the knee are higher and varied in the point of application, leading to the concern for fatigue resistance and fracture. REFERENCE: Koval KJ (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 7. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 2002, pp 193-199.

Question 925

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following is the primary mechanism of polyethylene wear in the hip?
. Fatigue cracking and delamination
. Oscillatory fretting
. Crevice corrosion
. Oxidative degradation
. Adhesion and abrasion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Adhesion and abrasion


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Although previous theories on acetabular wear implicated fatigue cracking and delamination as primary wear mechanisms, these have actually manifested as major modes of polyethylene wear in knees. The primary mechanism of wear in polyethylene acetabular components appears to be adhesion and abrasion. In an analysis of 128 components retrieved at autopsy or revision surgery, wear appeared to occur mostly at the surface of the components and was the result of large strain plastic deformation and orientation of the surface layers into fibrils that subsequently ruptured during multidirectional motion. It was also shown conclusively that 32-mm heads displayed significantly more wear (volumetric wear) than either 22-mm or 26-/28-mm heads (1-mm increase in size increased volumetric wear by 10%). The wear at the articulating surface was characterized by highly worn polished areas superiorly and less worn areas inferiorly separated by a ridge. Abrasion was very common, occurring after adhesion and plastic deformation of polyethylene fibrils, and abrasion secondary to third-body wear. Wear rates decreased with longer survival of components, indicating a “bedding in” phenomenon, arguing against oxidative and fatigue wear. Crevice corrosion occurs in fatigue cracks with low oxygen tension (under screw heads, etc). Oscillatory fretting consists of cyclical abrading of the outer surface from small movements. Fatigue and delamination is predominant in total knee arthroplasty where stresses are maximum just below the surface of the polyethylene component, causing fatigue over time with subsequent delamination. In contrast, hip wear occurs primarily at the surface of the polyethylene component. REFERENCES: Jasty M, Goetz DD, Bragdon CR, et al: Wear of polyethylene acetabular components in total hip arthroplasty: An analysis of one hundred and twenty-eight components retrieved at autopsy or revision operations. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1997;79:349-358. Beaty JH (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 6. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1999, pp 47-53. Bell CJ, Walker PS, Abeysundera MR, et al: Effect of oxidation on delamination of ultrahigh-molecular-weight polyethylene tibial components. J Arthroplasty 1998;13:280-290. Sutula LC, Collier JP, Saum KA, et al: The Otto Aufranc Award: Impact of gamma sterilization on clinical performance of polyethylene in the hip. Clin Orthop 1995;319:28-40.

Question 926

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
At the time of revision knee arthroplasty, a surgeon performs a rectus snip to gain exposure to the knee. When compared with a standard parapatellar approach, what is the expected outcome?
. Improvement in range of motion
. Reduction in range of motion
. Increase in extensor mechanism lag
. No differences in motion and strength

Correct Answer & Explanation

. No differences in motion and strength


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Rectus snip during total knee arthroplasty has no effect on motion or strength at long-term follow-up. It has not been associated with extensor mechanism lag.

Question 927

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 56-year-old woman presents with left hip pain and diminishing range of motion. Examination reveals pain with range of motion of the hip. Radiographs reveal multiple calcific lesions within the hip and well-preserved joint space. MRI scan shows thickened synovium nodular loose bodies with decreased signal on T1 and T2. What is the best next step?

. Hip arthroscopy versus open debridement with synovectomy
. CT of the chest, abdomen and pelvis as part of a staging protocol
. Total hip arthroplasty (THA)
. Nonoperative treatment with routine follow-upThe patient has synovial chondromatosis, a benign metaplastic disorder of cartilagenous synovial nodules, often intra-articular. This condition is usually monoarticular, most commonly affecting the knee, followed by hip, elbow and shoulder. It occurs preferentially in men between the ages of 20 to 40. It may cause pain, mechanical or impingement symptoms and loss of motion, and may cause degenerative changes due to impingement. Synovectomy with excision of the cartilaginous nodules is the treatment of choice, and equally good results may be achieved with arthroscopic debridement and open debridement. Recurrence rates vary, reported from 0% to 22%. THA would not be indicated without the presence of arthritis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Hip arthroscopy versus open debridement with synovectomy


Explanation

Figures 1 through 3 show the radiographs obtained from an 86-year-old- woman who has had chronic left hip pain for several years. She now uses a walker and a wheelchair for ambulation. She is medically healthy. What is the most appropriate surgical intervention?

Question 928

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
What is the most common complication following total disk arthroplasty in the lumbar spine?
. Implant migration
. Deep venous thrombosis
. Transient retrograde ejaculation
. Transient radicular leg pain
. Incisional hernia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Transient radicular leg pain


Explanation

DISCUSSION: In a midterm (7 to 11 years) follow-up study of lumbar total disk arthroplasty, 5 of 55 patients had transient radicular leg pain without evidence of nerve root compression. Implant migration is rare. Deep venous thrombosis, incisional hernia, and retrograde ejaculation are less common complications of disk arthroplasty. REFERENCE: Tropiano P, Huang RC, Girardi FP, et al: Lumbar total disc replacement: Seven to eleven-year follow-up. J Bone Joint Surg Am 2005;87:490-496.

Question 929

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 62-year-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis has had pain and instability of the elbow following total elbow replacement 2 years ago. A complete work-up, including aspiration and cultures, is negative. Figures 9a and 9b show the AP and lateral radiographs. Treatment should consist of
. orthotic stabilization.
. removal of the components with resection arthroplasty.
. revision total elbow arthroplasty with an unconstrained prosthesis and ulnar allograft.
. revision total elbow arthroplasty with a semiconstrained long-stemmed ulnar prosthesis.
. elbow arthrodesis with bone grafting.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. revision total elbow arthroplasty with a semiconstrained long-stemmed ulnar prosthesis.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient has aseptic loosening of the original semiconstrained prosthesis and significant proximal ulnar bone destruction; therefore, the treatment of choice is revision arthroplasty using a semiconstrained design. Although orthotic stabilization could be used, it will not provide long-term pain relief. Resection arthroplasty after removal of the components may lead to painful instability. Elbow arthrodesis would be difficult with the bone stock loss and is not considered the best option. Two main contraindications to the use of an unconstrained prosthesis are significant bone loss and previous use of a hinged or semiconstrained prosthesis. An ulnar allograft could be combined with the use of a semiconstrained long-stemmed ulnar prosthesis as a treatment modification. REFERENCES: Ewald FC, Simmons ED Jr, Sullivan JA, et al: Capitellocondylar total elbow replacement in rheumatoid arthritis: Long-term results. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1993;75:498-507. Morrey BF, King GJ: Revision of failed total elbow arthroplasty, in Morrey BF (ed): The Elbow and Its Disorders, ed 3. Philadelphia, PA, WB Saunders, 2000, pp 602-610.

Question 930

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A patient who underwent a high tibial osteotomy (HTO) is now scheduled to undergo total knee arthroplasty (TKA). When compared with a patient undergoing primary TKA without a prior HTO, the patient should be advised to expect a higher incidence of
. limited range of motion.
. patella complications.
. infection.
. loosening.
. tibia fracture.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. limited range of motion.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Conversion TKA following a previous HTO can be successful; however, it is associated with poorer clinical results when compared with other primary TKAs. There is an increased likelihood of poor range of motion that is partially affected by patella infera created from the osteotomy. Patella infera also results in difficulty with surgical exposure. There has been no reported increase in the rate of infection, fracture, or loosening. REFERENCE: Mont MA, Alexander N, Krackow KA, Hungerford DS: Total knee arthroplasty after failed high tibial osteotomy. Orthop Clin North Am 1994;25:515-525.

Question 931

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A complication associated with using the Morrey approach (triceps reflecting) to implant a semiconstrained total elbow arthroplasty is

. loss of elbow extensor power.
. implant dislocation.
. implant malposition.
. development of heterotopic ossification.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. loss of elbow extensor power.


Explanation

Numerous approaches can be used to implant a total elbow arthroplasty. The Morrey approach identifies, transposes, and protects the ulnar nerve, and then subperiosteally reflects the triceps off the ulna. The sleeve of tissue is very thin distally, and the triceps need to be meticulously repaired at the time of closure. Implant dislocation and malposition are less likely with an extensile approach, and dislocation is unlikely with a semiconstrained implant. The development of heterotopic ossification is unrelated to the surgical approachused for elbow arthroplasty.

Question 932

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A year-old man with insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus underwent primary total knee arthroplasty (TKA). A full-thickness skin slough measuring 3 cm by 4 cm developed, with postsurgical exposure of the patellar tendon. No change is observed in the appearance of the wound after 2 weeks of wet-to-dry dressing changes. What is the best next treatment step for the soft-tissue defect?

. Continued dressing changes
. Split-thickness skin graft C. Full-thickness skin graft D. Local rotational flap

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Continued dressing changes


Explanation

DISCUSSION:If wound healing does not occur and deep soft tissues such as the patellar tendon are exposed following TKA, local rotational flap is the procedure of choice. The procedure should be performed relatively early after the recognition of a soft-tissue wound-healing problem. In the setting of TKA, the gastrocnemius muscle is an excellent source of flaps for wound coverage of the proximal tibia.

Question 933

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)
A woman who underwent total knee replacement 18 months ago has had 3 weeks of moderate drainage from a previously healed wound. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Vacuum-assisted wound closure dressing
. Intravenous antibiotics for 6 weeks, followed by long-term oral antibiotic administration
. Irrigation and debridement, followed by polyethylene exchange
. Two-stage debridement and reconstruction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Two-stage debridement and reconstruction


Explanation

Discussion: This situation represents a definitively and chronically infected knee replacement. Antibiotic therapy alone might suppress the infection but would not eradicate it. Debridement and polyethylene exchange would be appropriate treatment for an early postoperative infection. The treatment of choice is to perform a two-stage debridement and reconstruction. Although not among the listed choices, an aspiration or culture could be done presurgically and might help clinicians identify the best antibiotics to treat the condition. Antibiotic selection would not affect the need for the two-stage reconstruction, however.

Question 934

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 46 shows the radiograph of a 65-year-old man who reports restricted range of motion and pain with sitting 18 months after undergoing right side revision total hip arthroplasty. What is the most appropriate management?
. Alendronate
. Indomethacin
. Radiotherapy
. Excision

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excision


Explanation

Discussion: The presence of Brooker grade 1 or 2 heterotopic ossification (HO) does not influence the outcome of total hip arthroplasty, whereas restricted range of motion and pain may occur in patients with more severe grade 3 or 4 HO. Treatment may be nonsurgical or surgical. Nonsurgical management includes intensive physiotherapy during the maturation phase of the disease in an attempt to limit the final stiffness. There appears to be no data regarding the effectiveness of this treatment. There is no role for NSAIDs or radiotherapy as a treatment for preexisting HO. Surgical treatment involves excision of the heterotopic bone and can be expected to improve the functional outcome. Bisphosphonates have been used in the past, but their use has been discontinued as they only postpone ossification until treatment is stopped.

Question 935

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following is accurate regarding low-molecular-weight heparin used for deep venous thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis in total joint arthroplasty?
. The incidence of thrombocytopenia is lower with low-molecular-weight heparin than with unfractionated heparin.
. The half-life of low-molecular-weight heparin is less than that of unfractionated heparin.
. Low-molecular-weight heparin affects circulating thrombin (Factor IIa) to a greater extent than unfractionated heparin.
. The mechanism of action of low-molecular-weight heparin is primarily by targeting Factor Xa.
. There is a significant decrease in postoperative bleeding with the use of low-molecular-weight heparin compared to warfarin.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The mechanism of action of low-molecular-weight heparin is primarily by targeting Factor Xa.


Explanation

Discussion: Low-molecular-weight heparin is highly bioavailable with a half-life of 4 to 18 hours. This is greater than the 1 hour half-life of unfractionated heparin. Low-molecular-weight heparin offers an advantage over unfractionated heparin by selectively targeting Factor Xa while having a lesser effect on circulating thrombin (Factor IIa). Circulating thrombin Factor IIa is needed for local hemostasis at the site of the surgical wound. Clinical studies have shown a reduction by one third in the incidence of thrombocytopenia with the use of low-molecular-weight heparin. Low-molecular-weight heparin has been shown to demonstrate similar clinical results compared to warfarin with respect to preventing thromboembolic disease after total hip arthroplasty and complications such as bleeding.

Question 936

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following best describes the resultant forces on an increased offset stem when compared with a standard offset stem?
. Increased joint reaction force, increased torsional load
. Increased joint reaction force, decreased torsional load
. Decreased joint reaction force, increased torsional load
. Decreased joint reaction force, decreased torsional load
. No change in joint reaction force or torsional load

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased joint reaction force, increased torsional load


Explanation

Discussion: The increased emphasis on restoring offset in total hip arthroplasty has implications for the forces applied to the components and the fixation interfaces. Static analysis has shown that with an increased offset, joint reaction force on the articulation is decreased. When the resultant load on the hip is “out of plane” (i.e., directed anterior to posterior), there is increased torsion where the stem is turned into more retroversion.

Question 937

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 58-year-old woman who underwent a successful total hip replacement for degenerative arthritis 8 years ago reports groin pain for the past 6 months. A radiograph of the hip is shown in Figure 32. At revision, severe deficiency of the posterior column is noted. What reconstructive option would be most appropriate for the acetabulum?
. Cementless cup without graft
. Cemented cup without graft
. Cemented cup with structural bone graft
. Bone graft, reconstruction cage, and cemented cup
. Bilobed cementless acetabular component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Bone graft, reconstruction cage, and cemented cup


Explanation

The radiograph shows medial migration of the cementless acetabular component, strongly suggesting acetabular discontinuity with a combined segmental and cavitary medial deficiency. The treatment of choice is a morcellized or structural graft, supported with a reconstructive cage bridging the pelvic discontinuity, and a cemented cup.

Question 938

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 37-year-old man who works in a factory has isolated, lateral unicompartmental pain about his knee with activities. Nonsurgical management has failed to provide relief. The radiograph shown in Figure 45 reveals a tibiofemoral angle of approximately 15 degrees which is clinically correctable to neutral. What is the best surgical option in this patient?
. Unicompartmental arthroplasty
. Total knee arthroplasty
. Lateral closing wedge proximal tibial osteotomy
. Medial opening wedge proximal tibial osteotomy
. Medial closing wedge supracondylar femoral osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Medial closing wedge supracondylar femoral osteotomy


Explanation

Patients with a valgus alignment about the knee can have lateral compartment arthritis. Similar to a high tibial osteotomy, a supracondylar femoral osteotomy is indicated in younger patients who have a more active lifestyle and isolated unicompartmental disease. In this young patient who works in a factory and has a valgus knee, a medial closing wedge supracondylar femoral osteotomy is the treatment of choice.

Question 939

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following factors is associated with failure of arthroscopic excision of the distal clavicle?
. Removal of less than 2 cm of bone
. Male gender
. Female gender
. Diagnosis of osteolysis
. Uneven resection of bone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Uneven resection of bone


Explanation

Uneven resection of bone, typically leaving a retained posterolateral corner of the distal clavicle, can lead to failure of arthroscopic distal clavicle excision. The amount of bone resected, the gender of the patient, or the diagnosis (osteoarthritis versus osteolysis) does not appear to affect the results.

Question 940

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 68-year-old woman underwent a successful total right hip arthroplasty with a metal-on-metal articulation and cementless porous-coated components. Three months later, she underwent identical surgery on the left hip. Three months after surgery on the left hip, she reports groin pain on ambulation. Examination reveals significant groin discomfort with passive hip motion, particularly at the extremes of motion. Radiographs are shown in Figures 21a and 21b. Laboratory studies show an erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 35 mm/h and a C-reactive protein of 0.9. Aspiration yields scant growth of Staphylococcus epidermidis in the broth only, with no evidence of loosening on arthrography. A second aspiration yields scant growth of Staphylococcus epidermidis in the broth only. What is the most likely cause of the patient’s pain?
. Allergic metal synovitis
. Aseptic loosening of the acetabular component
. Septic loosening of the acetabulum
. Deconditioning following hip arthroplasty
. Iliopsoas tendinitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Septic loosening of the acetabulum


Explanation

The difference in the clinical results combined with the laboratory findings points to infection. While there is a significant risk of false-positive findings with aspiration, the fact that two successive aspirations grew the same organism strongly suggests infection. The radiograph shows that there is more radiolucency around the left acetabular component than the right component.