Menu

Question 941

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 73-year-old man has stiffness after undergoing primary posterior cruciate ligament-retaining total knee arthroplasty 18 months ago. Extensive physiotherapy, dynamic splinting, and manipulations under anesthesia have failed to result in improvement. Examination reveals range of motion from 30 degrees to 60 degrees of flexion. The components are well fixed, and the evaluation for infection is negative. In discussing the possibility of revision arthroplasty, the patient should be advised that
. the success of improving range of motion to a functional range of 0 degrees to 90 degrees in the literature is between 75% to 80%.
. the preoperative arc of motion will not influence the ultimate range of motion after formal component revision.
. change from a posterior cruciate ligament-retaining to a posterior cruciate ligament-substituting design has a much greater chance of success.
. manipulation under anesthesia will effectively improve range of motion if postoperative stiffness develops following revision.
. the major postoperative focus will be to regain near full extension.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. the major postoperative focus will be to regain near full extension.


Explanation

Stiffness following primary total knee arthroplasty remains a vexing problem. Treatment options have included extensive physical therapy, dynamic splinting, manipulation under anesthesia, arthroscopic arthrolysis, open arthrolysis with polyethylene exchange, and ultimately revision arthroplasty. Results are not as gratifying as would be expected. Haidukewych and associates reported on 15 patients who underwent revision of well-fixed components after total knee arthroplasty for stiffness. Of the 15 patients, 10 (66%) were satisfied with the outcome revision. Interestingly, they noted that in patients for whom the total arc of motion did not improve but who regained near full extension, there was a greater amount of satisfaction with the procedure than for those who did not regain full extension.

Question 942

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 31 is the abdominal radiograph of a 70-year-old woman who experiences nausea and abdominal tightness 48 hours following left total knee arthroplasty performed under general anesthesia. She received 24 hours of cefazolin antibiotic prophylaxis and a patient-controlled analgesia narcotic pump for pain management. She has been receiving warfarin for thromboembolic prophylaxis. Her severe abdominal distension and markedly decreased bowel sounds are most likely secondary to
. general anesthesia.
. administration of antibiotics.
. administration of warfarin.
. administration of narcotics.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. administration of narcotics.


Explanation

The radiograph reveals severe intestinal dilatation, which has occurred as the result of acute colonic pseudo-obstruction and is associated with excessive narcotic administration following total joint arthroplasty. Anesthetic type, antibiotic administration, and warfarin have not been associated with this obstruction. Electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia have been associated with postsurgical acute colonic pseudo-obstruction.

Question 943

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
The specificity of intraoperative frozen sections obtained for the evaluation of infected total hip arthroplasty may be improved by
. setting the threshold for diagnosis to 10 polymorphonuclear leukocytes per high-powered field.
. setting the threshold for diagnosis to 15 polymorphonuclear leukocytes per high-powered field.
. ensuring that each sample is obtained and submitted in a truly random fashion.
. ensuring that polymorphonuclear leukocyte counts are obtained in a truly random fashion.
. correlating the frozen section results with those of the intraoperative Gram stain.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. setting the threshold for diagnosis to 10 polymorphonuclear leukocytes per high-powered field.


Explanation

Lonner and associates conducted a prospective study to determine the reliability of analysis of intraoperative frozen sections for the identification of infection during 175 consecutive revision total joint arthroplasties. The sensitivity and specificity of the frozen sections were similar regardless of whether an index of 5 or 10 polymorphonuclear leukocytes per high-powered field was used. Analysis of the frozen sections had a sensitivity of 84% for both indices, whereas the specificity was 96% when the index was 5 polymorphonuclear leukocytes and 99% when it was 10 polymorphonuclear leukocytes. At least 10 polymorphonuclear leukocytes per high-powered field was predictive of infection.

Question 944

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figures 1 and 2 show the radiograph and CT obtained from a 78-year-old woman who underwent right total hip replacement in 1995. She initially did well with no pain. She was last seen 7 years ago and was having mild hip pain at that time. She was found to have a supra-acetabular cyst on radiographs. She has had severe right hip pain for the past 9 months while using a walker for ambulation. The initial blood work reveals an estimated erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 32 mm/hr, a C-reactive protein level of 0.5 mg/L, a serum cobalt level of 0.4 µg/L, and a serum chromium level of 0.6 µg/L. Right hip aspiration is performed, revealing a white blood cell count of 139, 52% neutrophils, and a negative leukocyte esterase test. What is the best next step?
. Acetabular revision, with placement of a custom triflange acetabular component and femoral head exchange
. Removal of the femoral and acetabular components and placement of an antibiotic spacer, with 6 weeks of intravenous antibiotics
. Head and liner exchange and retention of the femoral and acetabular implants with acetabular bone grafting
. Nonsurgical management with the initiation of bisphosphonates and referral to pain management

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular revision, with placement of a custom triflange acetabular component and femoral head exchange


Explanation

The hip replacement was performed in 1995, during the period when the previous generation of polyethylene was utilized. This polyethylene was subjected to irradiation in air, with subsequent oxidation and consequent osteolysis after implantation. The imaging shows significant osteolysis and raises concern for pelvic discontinuity and acetabular implant failure. This scenario requires complex acetabular revision using a custom triflange device, distraction with a jumbo acetabular component, or placement of a porous metal cup/cage construct with augmentation. The laboratory values are not consistent with infection or failure due to metal debris.

Question 945

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

-Figure is the radiograph of a 55-year-old veteran who developed avascular necrosis after a traumatic hip dislocation. He was treated with hemiarthroplasty 10 years ago and also has posttraumatic stress disorder and chronic pain. He has had multiple spinal surgeries and takes 30 mg of methadone daily. He now has severe groin pain and is unable to ambulate. Laboratory studies showed a C-reactive protein level of 0.2 mg/L (reference range, 0-3 mg/L), erythrocyte sedimentation rate of 50 mm/h (reference range, 0-20 mm/h), hip aspiration of 500/mm3 white blood cell count, 50% polynucleated cells, 30%monocytes, and 20% lymphocytes What is the most likely cause of his hip pain?

. Infection
. Osteolysis
. Acetabular protrusio
. Loosening of implant
. Complex regional pain syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Infection


Explanation

Question 946

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which patient would expect to have the longest implant survivorship after undergoing total elbow arthroplasty (TEA)?
. Rheumatoid arthritis with unconstrained TEA
. Rheumatoid arthritis with semiconstrained TEA
. Primary osteoarthritis with semiconstrained TEA
. Primary osteoarthritis with unconstrained TEA
. Acute distal humeral bicolumnar fracture with semiconstrained TEA

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Rheumatoid arthritis with semiconstrained TEA


Explanation

Total elbow arthroplasty (TEA) has the longest average implant survivorship in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, above those seen in TEA done for fractures, flail elbow, osteoarthritis, and post-traumatic arthritis. Implant options have traditionally shown best results with semiconstrained TEA designs.

Question 947

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

below demonstrate the radiographs obtained from a year-old woman with end-stage debilitating osteoarthritis of the right hip. She is contemplating total hip arthroplasty (THA). She has a history of right hip dysplasia and underwent hip osteotomy as an adolescent. Over the years, nonsurgical treatment, including weight loss, activity modifications, and intra-articular injections, has failed. Her infection work-up reveals laboratory findings within defined limits. A further work-up reveals elevations in serum cobalt and chromium levels and fluid collections surrounding the hip on MRI with MARS. Revision THA is recommended. The most common complication following revision of a failed metal-on- metal hip arthroplasty is

. infection. B. instability. C. loosening.
. periprosthetic fracture.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. infection. B. instability. C. loosening.


Explanation

THA has proven durable and reliable for pain relief and improving function for patients with end-stage arthritis. Appropriate bearing selection is critical to minimize wear and hip complications. A metal-on- metal articulation is associated with excellent wear rates in vitro. With its capacity to offer a low wear rate  with  large  femoral  heads,  it  is  an  attractive  bearing  choice  for  THA.  However,  local  soft-tissue reactions,  pseudotumors,  and  potential  systemic  reactions  including  renal  failure,  cardiomyopathy, carcinogenesis, and potential teratogenesis with potential transfer of metal ions across the placental barrier make metal-on-metal bearings less desirable and relatively contraindicated for younger women of child- bearing age. The workup of a painful metal-on-metal hip arthroplasty necessitates a systematic approach. Several algorithms have been proposed. Routine laboratory studies including sedimentation rate, CRP, and  serum  cobalt  and  chromium  ion  levels  should  be  obtained  for  all  patients  with  pain.  Advanced imaging including MARS MRI should be performed to evaluate for the presence of fluid collections, pseudotumors, and abductor mechanism destruction. Infection can coexist with metal-on-metal reactions, so, when indicated (if the CRP level is elevated), a hip arthrocentesis should be obtained. However, in this setting, a manual cell count and differential should be obtained because an automated cell counter may provide falsely elevated cellcounts. The results of revision surgery for a failed metal-on-metal hip prosthesis can be variable. The amount of local tissue destruction and the integrity of the hip abductor mechanism  can  greatly  influence  outcomes.  Instability  is  the  most  common  complication  following revision of failed metal-on-metal hip replacements.

Question 948

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 28 shows an AP radiograph of a 54-year-old woman who underwent lumbar laminectomy and fusion at the L4 and L5 levels with placement of a bone stimulator 8 years ago. She also underwent a left total hip arthroplasty 2 years ago; aspiration of that joint now reveals that it is infected with a gram-positive cocci organism. History is also significant for IV drug use and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The patient reports fever, chills, and left flank and abdominal pain. Examination reveals significant pain with resisted left hip flexion and passive hip extension. She also has lumbar hyperlordosis. Which of the following studies would best identify the underlying cause of her infection?
. Abdominal and pelvic ultrasound
. CT of the abdomen and pelvis
. Technetium Tc 99m three-phase bone scan
. Abdominal radiographic series
. Gallium-67 citrate scan

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CT of the abdomen and pelvis


Explanation

The patient’s clinical signs (fever and flank, hip, and abdominal pain) suggest a primary iliopsoas abscess. With an increased patient population who abuse drugs and/or who are HIV-positive, iliopsoas abscess may be more prevalent because of systemic bacterial seeding and may be potentially unrecognized. Diagnostic imaging studies provide a better understanding of the anatomic magnitude of the infection, give concrete confirmation of the diagnosis, and may suggest an underlying cause. Neither standard abdominal radiographs nor ultrasound studies are sensitive enough to be diagnostic of this disease process. CT has been established as the standard study for identifying the underlying cause of this abscess.

Question 949

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
What factor is associated with a higher risk of dislocation after total hip arthroplasty?
. Male gender
. Previous hip surgery
. A direct lateral surgical approach
. Metal-on-metal bearing surfaces

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Previous hip surgery


Explanation

Dislocation after total hip arthroplasty is a multifactorial problem. Numerous risk factors may act independently or cumulatively to increase the risk of this complication. Previous hip surgery of any kind is associated with a twofold increased risk for dislocation. Other risk factors include female gender, impaired mental status, inflammatory arthritis, and older age.

Question 950

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A patient who underwent a total knee arthroplasty for osteoarthritis 18 months ago now reports the sudden development of pain in the ipsilateral knee. Radiographs and examination of the knee are unremarkable. Aspiration of the synovial fluid 3 days later reveals a WBC count of 1,500/mm³. The cells consist of 30% neutrophils and 70% monocytes. Culture results will not be available for several days. The patient has not been on antibiotics prior to this point. Based on these findings, what is the most appropriate management?
. Arthrotomy, debridement, and polyethylene exchange
. One-stage exchange arthroplasty
. Two-stage exchange arthroplasty
. Parenteral antibiotics
. Nonsurgical management without antibiotics

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nonsurgical management without antibiotics


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Synovial fluid analysis is a very sensitive tool for detecting infection in total knee arthroplasties. Several studies have demonstrated that an absolute leukocyte count in the synovial fluid of less than 1,700 to 2,500/mm³ is an accurate predictor of absence of infection. Similarly, a differential cell count of the WBCs demonstrating less than 50% to 60% neutrophils is an accurate predictor of absence of infection. If both parameters are normal, it is unlikely that the patient has an infection. The three surgical options are contraindicated based on the normal examination findings and laboratory parameters. Similarly, antibiotics should be avoided. The work-up should include tests to evaluate noninfectious sources of knee pain and sources of referred knee pain.

Question 951

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following is associated with the use of large femoral heads in total hip arthroplasty?
. Increased risk of total hip dislocation
. Decreased range of motion
. Fewer options for femoral head bearing material
. Acceptable wear with modern bearing surfaces
. Increased component impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acceptable wear with modern bearing surfaces


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Larger diameter femoral heads reduce the risk of hip dislocation by allowing greater range of motion before component impingement becomes a risk, and no reports have shown an increase in bearing wear. With modern bearings, volumetric wear should remain low, despite the increase in head diameter. Large femoral heads are available in all common bearing materials.

Question 952

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
What is the main benefit of using metal-backed tibial components in total knee arthroplasty?
. Improve the conformity of the articular surfaces
. Reduce the maximum compressive stresses on the underlying cancellous bone
. Increase the tensile forces on the other condyle when one is loaded
. Decrease the thickness of the polyethylene tray
. Decrease the compressive forces on the polyethylene tray

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reduce the maximum compressive stresses on the underlying cancellous bone


Explanation

DISCUSSION: In a normal knee, the hard subchondral bone helps to distribute loads across the joint surface. A metal-backed tibial component in total knee arthroplasty decreases the compressive stresses on the underlying, softer cancellous bone by distributing the load over a larger surface area, particularly when one condyle is loaded.

Question 953

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
When compared with patients having a body mass index (BMI) lower than 35, patients with a BMI above 40 who undergo primary total hip arthroplasty (THA) and total knee arthroplasty (TKA) are likely to have
. smaller incisions.
. more wound complications.
. fewer 30-day and 90-day readmissions.
. lower rates of patient satisfaction.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. more wound complications.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The obesity epidemic is increasing, and the number of patients with a BMI higher than 35 undergoing THA and TKA also is growing. Controversy exists over the optimal BMI cutoff and the ability to perform joint replacements safely in patients who are morbidly obese. Several clinical series and national database analyses have shown that morbidly obese patients undergoing THA or TKA are at increased risk for wound complications as well as 30-day and 90-day readmissions. These patients’ incisions are typically larger because of the size of the soft-tissue envelope. Although the clinical scores following successful THA or TKA often are lower than the scores of controls, the overall changes in clinical function and satisfaction are equivalent in nonobese and obese patients.

Question 954

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following methods is considered effective in decreasing the dislocation rate following a total hip arthroplasty using a posterior approach to the hip?
. Use of a shorter neck length
. Use of a smaller diameter head with a skirted neck extension
. Reconstruction of the external rotators and capsular attachments during closure
. Placement of the acetabular component in 60 degrees of abduction as opposed to 45 degrees of abduction
. Placement of the acetabular component in neutral (0 degrees) anteversion as opposed to 15 to 20 degrees of anteversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Reconstruction of the external rotators and capsular attachments during closure


Explanation

DISCUSSION: A total hip arthroplasty using the posterior approach has resulted in hip dislocation under certain circumstances. Reconstruction of the external rotator/capsular complex is recognized as a stability-enhancing mechanism for the posterior approach. During the procedure, the acetabular component should be placed in 15 to 20 degrees of anteversion and approximately 45 degrees of abduction. Relative retroversion is a risk factor for posterior dislocation. High abduction angles result in edge loading of the polyethylene and possible early failure, as well as an increased risk of dislocation. Smaller diameter heads and skirted neck extensions used together decrease the range of motion that is allowed before impingement occurs, and this can result in dislocation. Shorter neck lengths generally result in soft-tissue envelope laxity. If laxity occurs, increased offset, neck length, or both can improve stability. REFERENCES: Pellicci PM, Bostrom M, Poss R: Posterior approach to total hip replacement using enhanced posterior soft tissue repair. Clin Orthop 1998;355:224-228. Morrey BF: Difficult complications after hip joint replacement: Dislocation. Clin Orthop 1997;344:179-187.

Question 955

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Figure 163 is the radiograph of an 81-year-old man who had primary total hip arthroplasty 12 years ago and now has a 3-month history of left hip weight-bearing thigh pain. The appropriate treatment at this time is

. acetabular revision and femoral revision without an extended trochanteric osteotomy.
. acetabular revision and femoral revision with an extended trochanteric osteotomy.
. femoral revision without an extended trochanteric osteotomy.
. femoral revision with an extended trochanteric osteotomy.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. acetabular revision and femoral revision without an extended trochanteric osteotomy.


Explanation

DISCUSSIONThis patient has a loose cemented femoral component. The implant has subsided and the femur has remodeled into a varus position. Although the component may be removable without an extended trochanteric osteotomy, the varus bow of the femur will not allow distal fixation without use of an extended trochanteric osteotomy. The acetabular component appearsto be well fixed, and, as a result, should be retained in this older patient. An evaluation of stability could lead to possible revision of the acetabulum, and implants should be available.

Question 956

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figure 12 shows the radiograph of a 55-year-old man who has severe, painful osteoarthritis of the left hip and is scheduled to undergo a left total hip arthroplasty. History reveals that he underwent a right total hip arthroplasty 5 years ago that remains pain-free. Based on the preoperative radiograph, the patient is at greatest risk for what complication?
. Intraoperative fracture
. Deep vein thrombosis
. Limb-length discrepancy
. Sciatic nerve palsy
. Thigh pain

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Limb-length discrepancy


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The patient is at increased risk for limb-length discrepancy because the radiograph shows that the left leg is already longer than the right leg. To restore the proper biomechanics of the left hip, the left leg may have to be lengthened, further increasing the limb-length discrepancy. Intraoperative fracture, deep vein thrombosis, sciatic nerve palsy, and thigh pain are commonly associated with total hip arthroplasty, but the patient is not at increased risk for these complications. REFERENCE: Ranawat CS, Rodriguez JA: Functional leg-length inequality following total hip arthroplasty. J Arthroplasty 1997;12:359-364.

Question 957

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
What is the most common reason for reoperation in total knee arthroplasty?
. Polyethylene insert failure
. Malalignment of the knee
. Ligamentous instability
. Perioperative infection
. Patellar-related complications

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patellar-related complications


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Patellar problems currently constitute the largest number of complications after total knee arthroplasty, affecting between 8% and 35% of patients. These problems include patellar instability, fracture, component loosening, surface erosion, and pain. Malalignment, as an isolated reason for revision, is uncommon, yet it contributes to accelerated wear of the components. Joint instability affects up to 6% of patients, and the infection rate in knee arthroplasty is around 1% to 2%. REFERENCES: Blasier RB, Matthews LS: Complications of prosthetic knee arthroplasty, in Epps CH (ed): Complications in Orthopaedic Surgery. Philadelphia, PA, JP Lippincott, 1994, pp 1066-1069. Rand JA: The patellofemoral joint in total knee arthroplasty. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1994;76:612-620. Wilson MG, Kelley K, Thornhill TS: Infection as a complication of total knee-replacement arthroplasty: Risk factors and treatment in sixty-seven cases. J Bone Joint Surg Am 1990;72:878-883.

Question 958

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 77-year-old woman who underwent total knee arthroplasty 16 years ago now reports pain, swelling, and notable crepitation with range of motion. AP, lateral, and Merchant radiographs are shown in Figures 54a through 54c. What is the most likely diagnosis?
. Failure of patellar polyethylene
. Loosening of the femoral component
. Loosening of the tibial component
. Loosening of the patellar component
. Wear-induced osteolysis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Failure of patellar polyethylene


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The Merchant radiograph shows a lateral patellar shift with total polyethylene failure, resulting in a metal-on-metal bearing. This problem is associated with metal-backed patellar components. Component fixation appears solid, and no osteolysis is evident. REFERENCES: Poss R (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 3. Park Ridge, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1990, pp 590-593. Leopold SS, Berger RA, Patterson L, et al: Serum titanium level for diagnosis of a failed metal-backed patellar component. J Arthroplasty 2000;15:938-943. Frymoyer JW (ed): Orthopaedic Knowledge Update 4. Rosemont, IL, American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons, 1993, pp 613-614.

Question 959

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 30-year-old patient is indicated for distal femoral osteotomy. This procedure results in survivorship with
. a functional result for at least 20 years.
. a functional result that deteriorates within the first 10 years.
. an eventual conversion to a constrained knee arthroplasty.
. an eventual need for arthrodesis.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. a functional result that deteriorates within the first 10 years.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Distal femoral varus osteotomy (DFVO) is intended for patients younger than age 50, more active patients with isolated lateral compartment arthritis and valgus malalignment. Although the knee functional score improves at 1-year follow-up, the function scores significantly deteriorate at 10-year follow-up. At 15-year follow-up, the knee function further declines, resulting in an overall failure rate of 48.5%. DFVO provides longer lasting benefit in patients with better presurgical knee function. Total knee arthroplasty following DFVO provides improved function and successful outcomes. Standard posterior stabilized components provide satisfactory stability after appropriate ligament balancing without the need for stemmed or highly constrained implants for most patients.

Question 960

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 62-year-old woman has advanced osteoarthritis of the knee that has been refractory to nonsurgical treatment. She wishes to discuss total knee arthroplasty. She reports a lifelong history of intolerance to most jewelry and is concerned about having an allergic reaction to the metallic knee implant. Hypersensitivity to metal implants is usually classified as what type of Gell-Coombs reaction?
. I (allergic)
. II (cytotoxic, antibody-dependent)
. III (immune complex)
. IV (delayed type)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. IV (delayed type)


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Most “metal allergy” is classified as type IV, or delayed-type hypersensitivity response, which is a cell-mediated response. Types I, II, and III are not generally associated with metal hypersensitivity responses. Type I reactions are typically anaphylaxis. Type II reactions are antibody mediated, such as seen in Grave’s disease or hemolytic anemia. Type III reactions are immune complex diseases such as serum sickness or systemic lupus erythematosus.