Question 901
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)Correct Answer & Explanation
. Cobalt and chromium serum metal ion level testing
Practice Set 46 of 326
This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
. Cobalt and chromium serum metal ion level testing
. Fibroblastic cells in the periprosthetic lining
. Fat and marrow
. Developmental dysplasia of the hip
. Revise the tibial component with a metaphyseal cone and a press-fit diaphyseal-engaging stem.
The CT scan reveals a nondisplaced greater trochanteric fracture. The patient is now experiencing severe pain. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
. Partial weight-bearing activity for 4 to 6 weeks
. tranexamic acid use.
. Increased hardness
. Varus position of the stem
. 8 mm
. Age 40 or younger for women
. Posterior
A 58-year-old woman underwent a left total knee arthroplasty 6 years ago. She initially did well after surgery but sustained a fall 2 months ago while at work. She now describes left knee pain and instability and an inability to straighten her knee since the fall. She has been using a hinged knee brace, which provides partial support. On examination, she has passive range of motion of 0° to 115° and active range of motion of 80° to -115°. Her radiographs are shown in Figures below. What is the best option for the restoration of her function?
. Extensor mechanism reconstruction using synthetic mesh or allograft
. Heat pressed
. Revision of the polyethylene liner, removal of the screw, and debridement of the osteolytic lesion with or without bone grafting
. Return to the operating room, obtain a vascular surgery consultation, and perform an intraoperative arteriogram
A 40-year-old man with a history of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease underwent a right hip resurfacing 3 years ago with no perioperative complications. Hip pain has developed gradually during the last 4 months. Radiographs show no evidence of fixation loosening or any adverse changes at the femoral neck. No periarticular osteolysis is evident. What is the most appropriate management of this condition?
. Serum cobalt and chromium levels and metal-reduction MRI scan
. Open reduction and internal fixation
. Greater neck-length options
. Tranexamic (TXA) acid administration