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Question 901

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 63-year-old woman had a primary total hip arthroplasty 7 years ago that included a proximally coated titanium stem, a cobalt alloy femoral head, a titanium hemispherical acetabular component, and a polyethylene liner. She did well for 4 years but has now had two dislocations and reports pain and weakness around the left hip. She denies any fevers, chills, or constitutional symptoms. On examination, the patient walks well without any signs of an antalgic or Trendelenburg gait. Her abductor mechanism demonstrates good strength. Her erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein level are normal. On radiographs, all components appear well fixed and in good alignment. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?
. Physical therapy to improve hip stability
. Use of an abduction brace to limit the patient’s range of motion
. Conversion to a constrained acetabular liner
. Cobalt and chromium serum metal ion level testing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cobalt and chromium serum metal ion level testing


Explanation

Trunnionosis is a recently recognized complication following total hip arthroplasty and can occur when a cobalt alloy femoral head is used on a titanium alloy or cobalt alloy femoral stem. Patients often present with pain or swelling around the hip but at times can present with instability. Certain femoral stem designs have been associated with increased reports of trunnionosis. In a patient with a cobalt alloy femoral head who presents with instability, swelling, and weakness around the hip, the potential for trunnionosis and an adverse local tissue reaction should be considered.

Question 902

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During particle-induced osteolysis around implants, what cell secretes most of the interleukin-6 (IL-6)?
. Osteoblasts from surrounding bone
. B-lymphocytes in the bone marrow
. Fibroblastic cells in the periprosthetic lining
. T-lymphocytes in the circulating blood
. Macrophages in the granuloma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fibroblastic cells in the periprosthetic lining


Explanation

During osteolysis, IL-6 is secreted by fibroblasts in the membrane surrounding the prosthesis. IL-6 also can be secreted by osteoblasts in other settings, but they are not the predominant source of IL-6 in particle-induced osteolysis. The remaining cells are not major sources of IL-6.

Question 903

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Embolic material generated during total knee arthroplasty (TKA) shown in Figure 29 is composed of which of the following substances?
. Fat only
. Fat and air
. Fat and marrow
. Fat and cement
. Fat and bone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fat and marrow


Explanation

Emboli are created during TKA. Usually there is an increased incidence with the use of intramedullary rods that disrupt the marrow contents. These are not fat emboli per se. They are material composed of fat cells and marrow that act like pulmonary emboli to obstruct small arterioles in the lung. They are different from free fat emboli that are seen in fractures and that lead to chemical injury to the lung rather than obstructive injury.

Question 904

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
Which of the following factors increases the risk of sciatic nerve injury in primary total hip arthroplasty (THA)?
. Male gender
. Anterolateral approach
. Posterior superior quadrant acetabular screw placement
. Osteonecrosis
. Developmental dysplasia of the hip

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Developmental dysplasia of the hip


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Injury to the sciatic nerve is a relatively rare but serious complication of THA. Dissection of the sciatic nerve is not typically done during primary THA, although the nerve can be identified during the surgical approach. An anterolateral approach to THA would not necessarily be associated with any greater incidence of sciatic nerve injury than other approaches. Screw fixation for the acetabular component is often a matter of surgeon preference. Provided that the anatomic safe zones for screw fixation (posterior inferior and posterior superior) are recognized, injury to the sciatic nerve from acetabular screws can be minimized. Restoration of anatomic length is important in primary THA. Overlengthening can result in sciatic nerve palsy. Developmental dysplasia of the hip can lead to a congenitally shortened extremity with concomitant congenital shortening of the associated neurovascular structures. Overlengthening of the extremity during THA for developmental dysplasia of the hip can lead to sciatic palsy. Osteonecrosis is not an associated risk factor for sciatic nerve palsy. REFERENCES: DeHart MM, Riley LH Jr: Nerve injuries in total hip arthroplasty. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 1999;7:101-111. Anas P, Felix B: Evaluation and prevention of postoperative complications, in Neurologic Injury in Revision THA. New York, NY, Springer Verlag, 1999, pp 361-371.

Question 905

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Figures below show the radiographs obtained from a 79-year-old woman who has been experiencing increasing tibial pain 10 years after undergoing revision total knee arthroplasty. No evidence of infection is seen. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Retain the components, and implant a tibial strut allograft.
. Revise the tibial component with a metaphyseal cone and metaphyseal uncemented stem.
. Revise the tibial component with a metaphyseal cone and a press-fit diaphyseal-engaging stem.
. Revise the tibial component with a long cemented diaphyseal-engaging stem.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revise the tibial component with a metaphyseal cone and a press-fit diaphyseal-engaging stem.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Stems are available for cemented and press-fit implantation. To be effective, press-fit stems should engage the diaphysis, as shown in Figures 3 and 4. They also assist in obtaining correct limb alignment. Short metaphyseal-engaging stems are associated with failure rates that range between 16% and 29%. Cemented stems may be shorter than press-fit stems, because they do not have to engage the diaphysis. Short, fully cemented stems offer the advantage of metaphyseal fixation. Hybrid stem fixation makes use of the metaphysis for cement fixation with metaphyseal cones or sleeves and diaphyseal-engaging press-fit stems.

Question 906

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

The CT scan reveals a nondisplaced greater trochanteric fracture. The patient is now experiencing severe pain. What is the most appropriate treatment at this time?

. Liner exchange
. Revision of the entire acetabular component
. Revision of both the femoral and acetabular components
. Partial weight-bearing activity for 4 to 6 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Partial weight-bearing activity for 4 to 6 weeks


Explanation

DISCUSSIONThis patient presents with significant polyethylene wear, which can lead to both osteolysis and synovitis. However, synovitis usually manifests as a mild to moderate chronic ache, which should explain the discomfort. Although infection should always be ruled out with new-onset pain, no clinical parameters suggest acute hematogenous infection. Similarly, without any mention of back pain or neuropathy, radicular pain from the spine is unlikely. If this patient has a nondisplaced greater trochanteric fracture noted on MR imaging, the optimal immediate mode of treatment is to not rush into surgery despite the mild osteolysis. The patient’s severe pain is likely attributable to the nondisplaced greater trochanteric fracture rather than wear-induced synovitis, which typically presents as a mild to moderate ache. It is recommended toallow the fracture to heal to avoid fracture displacement. Once the fracture is healed, a revision surgery with liner exchange can be recommended. Based on this clinical scenario, the acetabular component is within what is largely considered the “safe-zone” in THA. Despite this patient’s dislocations, the preferred treatment modality is to revise to a constrained liner. This patient had a well-functioning hip for longer than 15 years. Therefore, conversion to a constrained liner is the best treatment.

Question 907

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Venous thromboembolism may occur after total joint arthroplasty. The risk of this complication is elevated in patients with:
. a BMI lower than 30.
. diabetes mellitus, with a hemoglobin A1c test result less than 7.
. tranexamic acid use.
. metabolic syndrome.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. tranexamic acid use.


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Obesity, a prior history of venous thromboembolism, and metabolic syndrome have all been associated with an increased risk of thromboembolism. A recent meta-analysis showed that diabetes had no significant relationship with venous thromboembolism following hip or knee arthroplasty. Tranexamic acid is an antifibrinolytic agent that has been shown to reduce blood loss substantially following hip and knee arthroplasty. It has also been shown to be safe in patients with severe medical comorbidities and a prior history of venous thromboembolism.

Question 908

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
With the increasing availability of total hip arthroplasty (THA) to younger patients with hip osteoarthritis, there has been increased use of alternative bearing surfaces. Compared to a ceramic-on-ceramic articulation, which of the following is a specific advantage of a metal-on-metal bearing surface?
. Increased wettability
. Increased hardness
. Increased fracture toughness
. Decreased surface roughness
. Lower coefficient of friction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased hardness


Explanation

Alternative bearing surfaces in THA have received much attention in recent years as more and more hip arthroplasties are being performed on younger patients with hip arthritis. The two most popular nonmetal-on-polyethylene bearing surfaces are metal-on-metal and ceramic-on-ceramic. There are arguments supporting the use of either, but ceramic bearings have been shown to have a theoretic increased risk of fracture compared with cobalt-chromium. This has been shown to be clinically relevant with zirconium ceramics. Newer alumina ceramics are being produced with lower porosity and grain size and with higher density and purity, resulting in lower fracture risk but still greater than that of cobalt-chromium.

Question 909

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following factors is most commonly associated with mechanical failure of a cemented total hip arthroplasty?
. Increased stem offset
. Varus position of the stem
. Osteoporotic bone
. Patient weight of greater than 154 lb
. Gender

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Varus position of the stem


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Varus position of the stem is most commonly associated with failure of the cemented femoral component because of association with an inadequate cement mantle in the proximal medial and distal lateral zones. An inadequate cement mantle and obesity have been associated with increased loosening but not as frequently as a varus deformity. The influences of gender and osteoporotic bone on the outcome of cemented femoral components have not been established.

Question 910

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During primary total knee arthroplasty, what is the maximum distance the joint line can be raised or lowered before poor motion, joint instability, and increased chance of revision occur?
. 4 mm
. 8 mm
. 12 mm
. 16 mm
. 20 mm

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 8 mm


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Positioning of the femoral and tibial components is a common cause of early failure of total knee arthroplasty. Two modes of possible position are raising or lowering the joint line from its anatomic level. Raising or lowering the joint line beyond an established threshold can cause limited range of motion, poor patellar function, and possible instability. It has been determined that a threshold of approximately 8 mm provides consistently good results after knee arthroplasty.

Question 911

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
What factor is associated with a high risk of developing pseudotumors after metal-on-metal hip resurfacing?
. Large-diameter components
. Age 40 or older for men
. Age 40 or younger for women
. Diagnosis of primary osteoarthritis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Age 40 or younger for women


Explanation

The recent experience of a large clinical cohort revealed the most likely risk factors as being female gender, age younger than 40, small components, and a diagnosis of hip dysplasia causing osteoarthritis. Failure was least likely among men and after procedures involving larger components. These data have prompted some authors to caution against using metal-on-metal hip resurfacing in women and to primarily target candidates who are men younger than age 50. Small components may be more prone to failure because of malpositioning and edge loading, which have been noted to be more common in dysplasia cases.

Question 912

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 68-year-old man presents with chronic progressive right shoulder pain and loss of motion. He has active shoulder elevation of 120° and 5-/5 shoulder forward flexion strength limited by pain. He has exhausted nonsurgical management over the past year and is now interested in surgical intervention. Figure 1 is the preoperative axial CT scan of his shoulder. During surgical reconstruction, the surgeon should anticipate the location of maximal glenoid erosion to be?
. Posterior
. Anterior
. Superior
. Inferior

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior


Explanation

In patients with chronic progressive shoulder pain and glenohumeral osteoarthritis, the humeral head typically subluxates posteriorly, leading to maximal glenoid erosion in the posterior quadrant.

Question 913

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 58-year-old woman underwent a left total knee arthroplasty 6 years ago. She initially did well after surgery but sustained a fall 2 months ago while at work. She now describes left knee pain and instability and an inability to straighten her knee since the fall. She has been using a hinged knee brace, which provides partial support. On examination, she has passive range of motion of 0° to 115° and active range of motion of 80° to -115°. Her radiographs are shown in Figures below. What is the best option for the restoration of her function?

. Revision total knee arthroplasty with placement of a hinge constrained device
. Patellar tendon repair with nonabsorbable suture and patellar resurfacing
. Hinged knee brace with drop lock design to restore stability during ambulation
. Extensor mechanism reconstruction using synthetic mesh or allograft

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extensor mechanism reconstruction using synthetic mesh or allograft


Explanation

DISCUSSION:The patient has an extensor mechanism disruption with patellar tendon rupture. This injury is treated with extensor mechanism reconstruction in the setting of previous total knee arthroplasty. There is a reported high  failure  rate  with  attempted  repair.  Revision  to  hinge  knee  arthroplasty  would  provide  implant stability but would not restore the extensor mechanism. The patient is relatively young and is working, so reconstruction would offer better long-term function than a drop lock brace, which can be better used in low-functioning patients with this type of injury. Extensor mechanism reconstruction historically has been accomplished  with  allograft  material,  but  a  novel  technique  using  synthetic  mesh  also  has  proved successful in treating this difficult problem.

Question 914

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following types of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene has been associated with the poorest clinical performance?
. Compression molded
. Heat pressed
. Ram extruded
. Gamma irradiated
. Ethylene oxide sterilized

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Heat pressed


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Numerous studies have documented the poor performance of heat-pressed ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene used in the porous-coated anatomic tibial inserts of both total knee and unicompartmental arthroplasty. The other processing and sterilization methods have not been associated with significantly high failure rates. REFERENCES: Wright TM, Rimnac CM, Stulberg SD, et al: Wear of polyethylene in total joint replacements: Observations from retrieved PCA knee implants. Clin Orthop 1992;276:126-134. Landy MM, Walker PS: Wear of ultra-high molecular-weight polyethylene components of 90 retrieved knee prostheses. J Arthroplasty 1988;3:S73-S85. Skyrme AD, Mencia MM, Skinner PW: Early failure of the porous-coated anatomic cemented unicompartmental knee arthroplasty: A 5- to 9-year follow-up study. J Arthroplasty 2002;17:201-205.

Question 915

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 62-year-old active man returns for routine follow-up 16 years after hip replacement. He has no hip pain. Radiographs reveal a well-circumscribed osteolytic lesion around a single acetabular screw. All hip components are perfectly positioned. Comparison radiographs obtained 6 months later show an increase in the size of the osteolytic lesion. CT depicts a well-described lesion that is 3 cm at its largest diameter and is localized around one screw hole with an eccentric femoral head. What treatment is appropriate, assuming that well-fixed cementless total hip components are in place?
. Revision of the polyethylene liner, removal of the screw, and debridement of the osteolytic lesion with or without bone grafting
. Revision of the acetabular component to a newer design without screws
. Removal of the screw, revision of the polyethylene liner, and stem cell injection into the lytic lesion
. Removal of the offending screw from the metal socket and placement of a new polyethylene liner in the existing socket

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision of the polyethylene liner, removal of the screw, and debridement of the osteolytic lesion with or without bone grafting


Explanation

DISCUSSION: Given a well-fixed acetabular metal shell and a localized osteolytic lesion, good outcomes can be expected from liner revision in this clinical scenario with retention of the metal socket, assuming no damage to the components or other unexpected findings arise during revision surgery. Here, complete cup revision is not warranted, considering the appropriate implant position. Beaulé and associates reviewed 83 consecutive patients (90 hips) in whom a well-fixed acetabular component was retained in a clinical scenario such as the one described. No hip showed recurrence or expansion of periacetabular osteolytic lesions. If the metal cup is unstable, acetabular component revision may be indicated.

Question 916

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Following total knee arthroplasty, a patient is noted to have asymmetrical absent pulses and poor capillary refill. What is the next most appropriate step in management?
. Observation of the limb for 4 hours to see if the arterial spasm resolves
. Measurement of lower leg compartment pressures
. Magnetic resonance angiogram
. Emergent return to the operating room for wound exploration while the patient is under anesthesia
. Return to the operating room, obtain a vascular surgery consultation, and perform an intraoperative arteriogram

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Return to the operating room, obtain a vascular surgery consultation, and perform an intraoperative arteriogram


Explanation

DISCUSSION: An assessment of the location of the vascular compromise is necessary prior to surgical exploration. Vascular repair will most likely require a separate surgical exposure. Vascular reperfusion may be accomplished at the time of an arteriogram with the use of a stent in certain situations. Return to the operating room with vascular surgical consultation and intraoperative arteriogram is appropriate. An immediate postoperative compartment syndrome is unlikely. Magnetic resonance angiogram is not appropriate because of the potential for a delay in diagnosis. REFERENCE: Smith DE, McGraw RW, Taylor DC, et al: Arterial complications and total knee arthroplasty. J Am Acad Orthop Surg 2001;9:253-257.

Question 917

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 40-year-old man with a history of Legg-Calve-Perthes disease underwent a right hip resurfacing 3 years ago with no perioperative complications. Hip pain has developed gradually during the last 4 months. Radiographs show no evidence of fixation loosening or any adverse changes at the femoral neck. No periarticular osteolysis is evident. What is the most appropriate management of this condition?

. Continue to observe with repeat radiographs in 6 months B. Fluoroscopic-guided iliopsoas tendon cortisone injection C. Hip aspiration
. Serum cobalt and chromium levels and metal-reduction MRI scan

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Serum cobalt and chromium levels and metal-reduction MRI scan


Explanation

DISCUSSION:Controversy persists over what exactly is the best approach to managing patients with metal-on-metal (MOM)  hip  arthroplasties.  All  patients  with  painful  MOM  hip  arthroplasties  should  be  examined  for fixation  loosening,  wear/osteolysis,  and  infection—no  differently  than  patients  without  MOM  hip arthroplasties.  It  is  recommended  to  obtain  serum  trace  element  levels.  If  the  levels  are  high,  cross- sectional imaging should be obtained to determine whether any pseudotumor or tissue necrosis is present around the hip arthroplasty. Hip aspiration should be considered if concern for infection exists. Adverse tissue reaction has been identified to occur around MOM hip arthroplasties. The predominant histologic feature is tissue necrosis with infiltration of lymphocytes and plasma cells.

Question 918

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 58-year-old woman is seen in the emergency department after falling at home. History reveals that she underwent right total knee arthroplasty 2 years ago. Radiographs are shown in Figures 56a and 56b. What is the most appropriate treatment?
. Closed reduction and casting
. Bed rest and skeletal traction
. Open reduction and internal fixation
. Retrograde intramedullary nailing
. Revision of the femoral component with a stemmed component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation


Explanation

DISCUSSION: The radiographs show an oblique periprosthetic distal femoral fracture. Of the options listed, open reduction and internal fixation is the most appropriate surgical option because a well-fixed, posterior stabilized closed box femoral component is present. Nonsurgical methods are not favored because of the highly displaced, unstable fracture pattern and prolonged immobility. Revision with a stemmed component is an option but would sacrifice more bone stock in this younger patient. REFERENCES: Moran MC, Brick GW, Sledge CB, et al: Supracondylar femoral fracture following total knee arthroplasty. Clin Orthop 1996;324:196-209. Raab GE, Davis CM III: Early healing with locked condylar plating of periprosthetic fractures around the knee. J Arthroplasty 2005;20:984-989. Tharani R, Nakasone C, Vince KG: Periprosthetic fractures after total knee arthroplasty. J Arthroplasty 2005;20:27-32.

Question 919

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following is considered an advantage of metal femoral heads compared with ceramic heads?
. Superior lubrication properties
. Smoother surface
. Less susceptible to third body wear
. More inert material
. Greater neck-length options

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Greater neck-length options


Explanation

Ceramic-on-ceramic bearing surfaces have superior tribological properties and show lower linear wear than metal-on-metal implants. However, because of their lower strength and vulnerability to fracture, design considerations constrain the neck-length options available to ensure optimal taper fit.

Question 920

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which modality has the broadest application for reduction of postsurgical transfusion?
. Regional anesthesia
. Tranexamic (TXA) acid administration
. Reduced transfusion trigger
. Hypotensive anesthesia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tranexamic (TXA) acid administration


Explanation

TXA is easy to administer, inexpensive, and safe for virtually all patients. Multiple studies have demonstrated transfusion rates lower than 3% for total knee arthroplasty and lower than 10% for total hip arthroplasty. Regional and hypotensive anesthesia effectively reduce transfusion; however, they cannot be used in as wide a range of patients as TXA. A reduced transfusion trigger must be considered along with patient symptoms when determining the need for transfusion.