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Question 3341

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 32-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus on chronic corticosteroids presents with severe groin pain. Radiographs reveal a crescent sign in the anterosuperior femoral head with mild flattening of the articular surface. Joint space is preserved. What is the most reliable treatment to relieve pain and restore function?

. Core decompression alone
. Core decompression with bone marrow aspirate concentrate
. Vascularized free fibular graft
. Total hip arthroplasty
. Proximal femoral derotational osteotomy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Core decompression alone


Explanation

The presence of a crescent sign and articular flattening indicates subchondral collapse (Ficat/Steinberg Stage III). Joint-preserving procedures have high failure rates once collapse has occurred, making THA the most reliable treatment for symptomatic patients.

Question 3342

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 70-year-old man presents 3 weeks after an uncomplicated primary THA with a draining sinus tract, increasing erythema, and a fever of 101.5°F. Radiographs show well-fixed components. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Intravenous antibiotics for 6 weeks followed by lifetime suppression
. Debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR) with modular part exchange
. Immediate one-stage revision arthroplasty
. Removal of components and placement of an antibiotic spacer (two-stage)
. Bedside irrigation and oral antibiotics

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intravenous antibiotics for 6 weeks followed by lifetime suppression


Explanation

For an early postoperative prosthetic joint infection (< 4 weeks from index surgery) with well-fixed components and a known or highly suspected organism, DAIR with exchange of modular components (head and liner) is the appropriate treatment.

Question 3343

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 25-year-old unrestrained driver suffers a posterior hip dislocation in a motor vehicle collision. Closed reduction is performed in the emergency department within 4 hours. Post-reduction CT scan shows a concentric joint reduction but identifies a 6x6 mm osteochondral fragment incarcerated within the joint space. What is the next best step in management?

. Skeletal traction for 6 weeks
. Immediate total hip arthroplasty
. Observation and non-weight bearing for 12 weeks
. Surgical arthrotomy or arthroscopy for fragment removal
. Closed reduction under general anesthesia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Skeletal traction for 6 weeks


Explanation

Incarcerated intra-articular fragments following hip dislocation must be surgically removed (via arthrotomy or arthroscopy). Failure to remove them acts as a third-body wear mechanism, leading to rapid and severe post-traumatic chondrolysis and arthritis.

Question 3344

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a complex revision THA for a well-fixed extensively porous-coated stem, the surgeon decides to perform an extended trochanteric osteotomy (ETO). Which muscle attachments must be maintained on the osteotomized fragment to ensure viability and subsequent healing?

. Iliopsoas and pectineus
. Gluteus maximus and short external rotators
. Gluteus medius and vastus lateralis
. Tensor fasciae latae and sartorius
. Adductor longus and brevis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopsoas and pectineus


Explanation

The extended trochanteric osteotomy (ETO) involves creating a lateral cortical window of the proximal femur. It relies on keeping the gluteus medius (proximal) and vastus lateralis (distal) firmly attached to preserve the fragment's blood supply and assist in tension band fixation.

Question 3345

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 64-year-old man underwent closed reduction and percutaneous pinning of a displaced femoral neck fracture 14 months ago. He now complains of severe, progressively worsening groin pain and shortened leg length. Radiographs demonstrate profound varus collapse, screw cut-out into the joint, and severe secondary acetabular wear. What is the treatment of choice?

. Valgus intertrochanteric osteotomy
. Revision internal fixation with a sliding hip screw
. Removal of hardware and hemiarthroplasty
. Removal of hardware and total hip arthroplasty
. Core decompression of the femoral head

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Valgus intertrochanteric osteotomy


Explanation

In an older patient with failure of internal fixation of a femoral neck fracture complicated by acetabular cartilage damage (secondary wear/arthritis), the treatment of choice is conversion to a total hip arthroplasty.

Question 3346

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)



A 72-year-old woman presents with start-up thigh pain 12 years after an uncemented THA. A radiograph (Figure 12) demonstrates progressive radiolucent lines >2 mm in all Gruen zones around the femoral stem with obvious subsidence. Inflammatory markers are strictly normal. Hip aspiration yields clear fluid with a WBC count of 300 cells/mm3 and 20% PMNs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Acute periprosthetic joint infection
. Trunnionosis with pseudotumor
. Aseptic loosening
. Vancouver A periprosthetic fracture
. Galvanic corrosion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acute periprosthetic joint infection


Explanation

Progressive radiolucencies in all Gruen zones with subsidence indicate gross loosening. Normal inflammatory markers and an aspiration WBC count well below the threshold for infection (<3000 cells/mm3) reliably distinguish aseptic loosening from periprosthetic joint infection.

Question 3347

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)



During pre-operative planning for a primary total hip arthroplasty, a surgeon decides to use a high-offset femoral stem instead of a standard-offset stem. Assuming leg length remains unchanged, what effect will this design choice have on hip biomechanics?

. Decreases the abductor moment arm and increases joint reactive force
. Increases the abductor moment arm and decreases joint reactive force
. Decreases the risk of sciatic nerve palsy
. Increases femoral component anteversion
. Decreases the tension on the iliotibial band

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreases the abductor moment arm and increases joint reactive force


Explanation

Increasing femoral offset lengthens the abductor moment arm, which reduces the force required by the abductors to maintain a level pelvis. This mechanical advantage consequently decreases the overall joint reactive force across the hip joint.

Question 3348

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 78-year-old woman with a history of a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty performed 8 years ago presents with new-onset groin pain and a palpable mass. Laboratory testing shows elevated serum cobalt and chromium levels. Which of the following is the most appropriate next imaging modality to evaluate for an adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR)?

. Technetium-99m bone scan
. Computed tomography (CT) scan with 3D reconstruction
. Metal-artifact reduction sequence (MARS) MRI
. Fluoroscopic hip arthrogram
. Indium-111 labeled white blood cell scan

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Technetium-99m bone scan


Explanation

MARS MRI is the imaging modality of choice for detecting pseudotumors and evaluating soft-tissue destruction in adverse local tissue reactions (ALTR) associated with metal-on-metal implants. It effectively minimizes scatter from the metallic components to evaluate the periarticular tissues.

Question 3349

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old man who underwent a right total hip arthroplasty 6 weeks ago presents with persistent hip pain, erythema, and a draining sinus tract. Which of the following is an absolute indication for a two-stage revision rather than a debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR) procedure?

. Symptom duration of exactly 2 weeks
. Presence of a well-fixed cementless stem
. Isolation of a highly susceptible Streptococcus species
. Loose femoral and acetabular components
. Patient age over 70

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Symptom duration of exactly 2 weeks


Explanation

DAIR is contraindicated when the prosthetic components are loose, as the biofilm cannot be adequately eradicated and the mechanical failure must be simultaneously addressed. A single- or two-stage exchange is the standard of care for periprosthetic joint infection complicated by loose components.

Question 3350

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During an extensile surgical approach to the hip, preserving the blood supply to the femoral head is critical to prevent avascular necrosis. The main arterial supply to the adult femoral head is the deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA). This artery courses posterior to which of the following structures?

. Quadratus femoris
. Obturator externus
. Obturator internus
. Piriformis
. Superior gemellus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Quadratus femoris


Explanation

The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) consistently runs posterior to the obturator externus tendon and anterior to the quadratus femoris. Protecting the obturator externus during posterior approaches is vital to preserve the critical blood supply to the femoral head.

Question 3351

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old man undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty. To optimize stability and minimize the risk of dislocation, what is the generally accepted "safe zone" for acetabular cup orientation as originally described by Lewinnek?

. 30° to 50° of inclination and 5° to 25° of anteversion
. 40° to 60° of inclination and 10° to 30° of anteversion
. 20° to 40° of inclination and 0° to 15° of anteversion
. 30° to 50° of inclination and 20° to 40° of anteversion
. 45° to 65° of inclination and 15° to 35° of anteversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 30° to 50° of inclination and 5° to 25° of anteversion


Explanation

Lewinnek's safe zone for acetabular component placement is classically defined as 40° ± 10° of inclination (abduction) and 15° ± 10° of anteversion. Placement outside this zone historically correlates with a higher risk of postoperative hip dislocation.

Question 3352

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

In total hip arthroplasty, successfully increasing the femoral offset without altering the leg length will have which of the following biomechanical effects?

. Increases the joint reaction force
. Decreases the tension of the abductor musculature
. Increases the abductor moment arm and decreases joint reaction force
. Increases the risk of impingement and dislocation
. Decreases the varus bending moment on the femoral stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increases the joint reaction force


Explanation

Increasing femoral offset lateralizes the femur, increasing the lever arm of the abductor muscles. This requires less abductor force to maintain a level pelvis, thereby decreasing the overall joint reaction force.

Question 3353

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 45-year-old man presents with a posterior wall acetabular fracture associated with a posterior hip dislocation. CT imaging demonstrates a focal area of marginal impaction of the articular surface. During surgical fixation, what is the most appropriate management of the impacted segment?

. Excision of the impacted fragment and grafting
. Elevation of the articular fragment, cancellous bone grafting of the void, and stabilization with the posterior wall plate
. In situ stabilization using bioabsorbable pins
. Discard the fragment and perform an acute total hip arthroplasty
. Leave the fragment in situ and fix the posterior wall over it

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excision of the impacted fragment and grafting


Explanation

Marginal impaction indicates depression of the articular cartilage into the underlying cancellous bone. It must be elevated anatomically to restore joint congruity, and the resulting metaphyseal defect must be bone grafted prior to plating.

Question 3354

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Ceramic-on-ceramic bearings in total hip arthroplasty have excellent wear characteristics but are associated with a unique complication known as "squeaking". Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for this phenomenon?

. High body mass index (BMI)
. Use of a larger diameter femoral head
. Component malpositioning leading to edge loading
. Use of a highly cross-linked polyethylene liner
. Short femoral neck offset

Correct Answer & Explanation

. High body mass index (BMI)


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic hips is primarily caused by disruption of fluid film lubrication. Component malposition (particularly cup anteversion/inclination errors) leading to edge loading is the most significant mechanical risk factor.

Question 3355

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

According to the quadrant system described by Wasielewski for acetabular screw placement during THA, placing a screw into the anterior-superior quadrant places which of the following structures at greatest risk?

. Obturator nerve
. Sciatic nerve
. Internal pudendal artery
. Superior gluteal nerve
. External iliac artery and vein

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Obturator nerve


Explanation

The anterior-superior quadrant corresponds to the "death corona" where the external iliac artery and vein reside. Screws should generally be avoided in this quadrant to prevent catastrophic vascular injury.

Question 3356

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 62-year-old female presents 5 years after a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty with new-onset groin pain and a cystic mass. Histologic evaluation of the periprosthetic tissue is most likely to demonstrate which of the following?

. Abundant polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs)
. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltration
. Birefringent particulate debris within macrophages
. Extensive acute fibrinous exudate
. Sheets of eosinophils and mast cells

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Abundant polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs)


Explanation

Adverse Local Tissue Reaction (ALTR) or Aseptic Lymphocyte-Dominated Vasculitis-Associated Lesion (ALVAL) in metal-on-metal hips represents a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. Histology characteristically shows perivascular lymphocytic infiltration.

Question 3357

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach, the sciatic nerve is at risk of injury. Which specific division of the nerve is most susceptible to indirect injury (e.g., traction), and what is the anatomic reason?

. Tibial division; it has less supporting connective tissue
. Peroneal division; it is positioned more laterally and has less supporting connective tissue
. Tibial division; it is positioned more medially and tethered by the piriformis
. Peroneal division; it lies deep to the obturator internus
. Both divisions are equally susceptible due to their shared epineurium

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tibial division; it has less supporting connective tissue


Explanation

The peroneal division of the sciatic nerve is more commonly injured because it lies more laterally (closer to the retractors) and has larger fascicles with less protective connective tissue compared to the tibial division.

Question 3358

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In the manufacturing of highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) for use in total hip arthroplasty, what is the primary purpose of heating the polyethylene above its melting point (remelting) following irradiation?

. To increase the degree of cross-linking
. To eliminate residual free radicals and improve oxidation resistance
. To improve the overall ultimate tensile strength of the polymer
. To increase the crystallinity of the material
. To sterilize the implant prior to packaging

Correct Answer & Explanation

. To increase the degree of cross-linking


Explanation

Irradiation causes cross-linking but also generates free radicals. Heating above the melting point (remelting) extinguishes these free radicals, preventing late oxidative degradation, though it slightly decreases the mechanical strength.

Question 3359

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Three months following an uncomplicated primary total hip arthroplasty, a patient complains that the operative leg feels longer. Clinical examination reveals equal tape measurements from the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) to the medial malleolus bilaterally. However, the distance from the umbilicus to the medial malleolus is greater on the operative side. What is the most appropriate initial management?

. Revision surgery to downsize the femoral head
. Shoe lift for the contralateral limb
. Reassurance and physical therapy
. Immediate closed manipulation to stretch the capsule
. Botulinum toxin injection to the abductor musculature

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision surgery to downsize the femoral head


Explanation

Equal ASIS to medial malleolus measurements indicate equal true leg lengths. The discrepancy in umbilicus to malleolus measurements indicates an apparent leg length discrepancy, typically due to pelvic obliquity from muscle contracture. This generally resolves within 6 months with physical therapy.

Question 3360

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A cementless femoral stem design is chosen for a primary THA in a 60-year-old man. Compared to a fully porous-coated cylindrical stem, what is the primary biomechanical advantage of a proximally coated tapered wedge stem?

. Increased distal fixation and immediate stability
. Greater ultimate pull-out strength
. Decreased proximal femoral stress shielding
. Complete elimination of thigh pain
. Lower risk of intraoperative calcar fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increased distal fixation and immediate stability


Explanation

Tapered wedge stems are designed to load the proximal femur more physiologically. Distally fixed, fully porous-coated, cylindrical stems are stiff and bypass the proximal femur, leading to significant proximal stress shielding and bone resorption.