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Question 3361

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 30-year-old active female sustains a posterior hip dislocation with an associated femoral head fracture that extends cephalad to the fovea capitis (Pipkin Type II). Following closed reduction of the hip joint, the displaced fracture is noted to have a 3mm step-off. What is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Skeletal traction for 6 weeks
. Open reduction and internal fixation of the femoral head
. Excision of the fractured fragment
. Total hip arthroplasty
. Hemiarthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Skeletal traction for 6 weeks


Explanation

Pipkin II fractures involve the weight-bearing dome of the femoral head. In a young, active patient with a displaced fragment (step-off > 1-2 mm), open reduction and internal fixation is indicated to restore joint congruity and reduce post-traumatic arthritis.

Question 3362

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old female undergoes a revision total hip arthroplasty for aseptic loosening. Preoperative dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scanning confirms severe osteoporosis. During impaction of a cementless acetabular component, a non-displaced medial wall acetabular fracture occurs. The component is stable. What is the most appropriate intraoperative management?

. Remove the cup, apply a pelvic reconstruction plate, and re-impact the cup
. Accept the cup position and supplement with multiple acetabular screws
. Convert to a cemented constrained liner
. Remove the cup and use a structural allograft for the medial wall
. Abandon the procedure and place the patient in skeletal traction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Remove the cup, apply a pelvic reconstruction plate, and re-impact the cup


Explanation

For an intraoperative, non-displaced medial wall fracture where the cementless acetabular shell achieves rigid press-fit stability, the appropriate management is to leave the cup in place and supplement it with multiple screws to bypass the fracture and ensure fixation.

Question 3363

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Placement of a screw in the anterosuperior quadrant of the acetabulum (Wasielewski zones) during total hip arthroplasty places which of the following structures at greatest risk of injury?

. External iliac artery and vein
. Obturator nerve and artery
. Sciatic nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Internal pudendal artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. External iliac artery and vein


Explanation

The anterosuperior quadrant is considered a danger zone due to the close proximity of the external iliac vessels. Safe screw placement is generally in the posterosuperior and posteroinferior quadrants.

Question 3364

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 65-year-old man receives a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty. Two years later, he complains of a reproducible squeaking noise during gait. What is the most common biomechanical or radiographic finding associated with this phenomenon?

. Edge loading secondary to component malposition
. Femoral stem subsidence within the cement mantle
. Acetabular cup retroversion isolated to the sagittal plane
. Micro-fracture of the ceramic femoral head
. Third-body wear from retained cement debris

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Edge loading secondary to component malposition


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic bearings is strongly associated with edge loading, typically caused by component malposition (e.g., increased cup inclination or version mismatch). Edge loading disrupts fluid-film lubrication and leads to stripe wear.

Question 3365

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)



A 75-year-old woman sustains a periprosthetic femur fracture around a cemented polished taper-slip stem. Radiographs demonstrate a fracture near the tip of the stem with obvious cement mantle fragmentation and stem subsidence. What is the most appropriate classification and treatment?

. Vancouver B1; Open reduction and internal fixation with locking plates
. Vancouver B2; Revision to a long cementless stem bypassing the fracture
. Vancouver B3; Proximal femoral replacement
. Vancouver C; Open reduction and internal fixation
. Vancouver A; Conservative management with protected weight-bearing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vancouver B1; Open reduction and internal fixation with locking plates


Explanation

A fracture around a loose stem (Vancouver B2) mandates revision arthroplasty. The standard of care is revision to a long cementless extensively porous-coated or fluted tapered stem that bypasses the fracture by at least two cortical diameters.

Question 3366

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old man with a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty presents with new-onset groin pain and a palpable mass 5 years postoperatively. Blood work reveals elevated serum cobalt and chromium. Aspiration yields sterile, cloudy fluid. What is the most likely etiology?

. Polyethylene wear debris induced osteolysis
. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (MACC) at the head-neck trunnion
. Occult periprosthetic joint infection from Propionibacterium acnes
. Galvanic corrosion at the titanium cup-bone interface
. Impingement of the polyethylene liner leading to rim fracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Polyethylene wear debris induced osteolysis


Explanation

Elevated metal ions and an adverse local tissue reaction (ALTR) in a metal-on-polyethylene implant strongly suggest trunnionosis. This is caused by mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the modular head-neck junction.

Question 3367

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Histologic evaluation of a successful, well-fixed porous-coated cementless titanium acetabular component retrieved 5 years postoperatively for an unrelated cause typically demonstrates bone ingrowth into approximately what percentage of the available porous surface?

. Less than 5%
. 10% to 30%
. 45% to 60%
. 75% to 85%
. 95% to 100%

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Less than 5%


Explanation

Although cementless components provide rigid biological fixation, histomorphometric studies of retrieved well-fixed porous implants show that actual bone ingrowth rarely exceeds 10% to 30% of the available porous surface.

Question 3368

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old male is scheduled for a revision total hip arthroplasty. He has a history of severe Brooker class III heterotopic ossification following his index procedure. What is the most effective prophylactic regimen to prevent recurrence?

. Single-dose 700 cGy radiation administered 24 hours preoperatively or within 72 hours postoperatively
. Oral indomethacin 75 mg daily for exactly 3 days postoperatively
. High-dose oral corticosteroids for 5 days postoperatively
. Intravenous zoledronic acid administered on postoperative day 1
. Oral aspirin 81 mg twice daily for 4 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Single-dose 700 cGy radiation administered 24 hours preoperatively or within 72 hours postoperatively


Explanation

Prophylaxis for severe heterotopic ossification includes either single-dose low-energy radiation (700-800 cGy) given pre- or postoperatively, or oral indomethacin for 2 to 6 weeks. A 3-day course of indomethacin is insufficient.

Question 3369

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a posterior approach to the hip, excessive retraction or release of the short external rotators close to the intertrochanteric crest endangers the primary blood supply to the femoral head. These critical retinacular vessels are terminal branches of which artery?

. Inferior gluteal artery
. Superior gluteal artery
. Deep branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery
. Ascending branch of the lateral circumflex femoral artery
. Obturator artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Inferior gluteal artery


Explanation

The deep branch of the medial circumflex femoral artery (MCFA) provides the primary blood supply to the adult femoral head via the posterosuperior retinacular vessels. It lies posterior to the obturator externus and anterior to the short external rotators.

Question 3370

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old active woman undergoes primary total hip arthroplasty with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. At her 2-year follow-up, she complains of a squeaking noise coming from the hip during deep flexion, though she is pain-free. What is the most significant risk factor for this phenomenon?

. Decreased femoral offset
. Excessive acetabular component anteversion and steep inclination
. Use of a 28-mm femoral head
. Failure to use a cemented femoral stem
. Impingement of the iliopsoas tendon

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreased femoral offset


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is highly associated with edge loading of the bearing surfaces. This edge loading most commonly occurs due to component malposition, specifically excessive cup inclination (steep cup) or malversion.

Question 3371

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 64-year-old man presents with painful swelling in his groin three years after undergoing a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty. Blood work reveals significantly elevated serum cobalt and chromium ion levels. A MARS MRI demonstrates a large cystic pseudotumor. If revision surgery is undertaken, histologic evaluation of the periprosthetic tissue will most likely show:

. Extensive polymorphonuclear leukocyte infiltration
. Birefringent particulate wear debris surrounded by foreign body giant cells
. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate and tissue necrosis
. Woven bone formation and osteoblastic rimming
. Abundant eosinophils and mast cell degranulation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extensive polymorphonuclear leukocyte infiltration


Explanation

Metal-on-metal bearing failures often cause adverse local tissue reactions (ALTR) or ALVAL (Aseptic Lymphocyte-dominated Vasculitis-Associated Lesion). Histologically, this is characterized by a dense perivascular infiltrate of T-lymphocytes, distinct from the macrophage response seen in polyethylene wear.

Question 3372

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During surgical dislocation of the hip using the Ganz trochanteric flip approach for a femoral head fracture, the blood supply to the femoral head is protected by maintaining the integrity of which of the following structures?

. The short external rotators and the medial femoral circumflex artery
. The piriformis tendon and the superior gluteal artery
. The ligamentum teres and the obturator artery
. The obturator externus tendon and the deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery
. The gluteus minimus tendon and the lateral femoral circumflex artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. The short external rotators and the medial femoral circumflex artery


Explanation

The deep branch of the medial femoral circumflex artery (MFCA) is the primary blood supply to the femoral head. It runs closely to the obturator externus tendon, which must be protected during a surgical dislocation (Ganz approach) to prevent avascular necrosis.

Question 3373

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old female presents with a periprosthetic femur fracture around a cementless, proximally porous-coated femoral stem.

Radiographs reveal a fracture extending just distal to the tip of the stem. The stem is radiographically loose with subsidence, but the proximal bone stock is highly comminuted while the diaphyseal bone is intact. According to the Vancouver classification, what is the most appropriate management?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate and cerclage cables
. Revision to a long cemented femoral stem
. Revision to a fully porous-coated, extensively diaphyseal-engaging stem or fluted tapered modular stem
. Revision to a standard primary cementless stem using impaction bone grafting
. Strut allografting alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate and cerclage cables


Explanation

This is a Vancouver B2 or B3 fracture (loose stem). Because the proximal bone is comminuted/inadequate and the stem is loose, the standard of care is to bypass the fracture and achieve distal fixation using a diaphyseal-engaging fluted tapered stem or extensively porous-coated stem.

Question 3374

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

During a primary total hip arthroplasty using a posterior approach, the surgeon decides to use a 'high offset' femoral stem instead of a standard offset stem. Assuming the neck angle remains the same, how does this stem primarily affect hip biomechanics?

. It increases leg length without changing abductor tension.
. It increases both leg length and femoral offset equally.
. It decreases the joint reaction force by increasing the abductor moment arm without increasing leg length.
. It decreases the abductor moment arm, thereby increasing the joint reaction force.
. It increases femoral version without altering leg length.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It increases leg length without changing abductor tension.


Explanation

A high offset stem lateralizes the femoral shaft, which increases the abductor moment arm. This improves abductor efficiency and decreases the hip joint reaction force, without inadvertently lengthening the leg as a longer standard neck would.

Question 3375

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old man underwent a right total hip arthroplasty 5 years ago with a modular cobalt-chromium femoral head on a titanium stem. He now presents with persistent thigh pain. Inflammatory markers are normal, and joint aspiration is negative for infection. Radiographs show no loosening. Serum cobalt is disproportionately elevated compared to chromium. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Polyethylene wear-induced osteolysis
. Aseptic loosening of the femoral stem
. Trunnionosis (mechanically assisted crevice corrosion)
. Occult periprosthetic joint infection
. Metal hypersensitivity type IV reaction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Polyethylene wear-induced osteolysis


Explanation

Trunnionosis is mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the modular head-neck junction. It is characterized by elevated serum cobalt levels (often disproportionately higher than chromium) and local tissue reaction in the setting of mixed metal combinations (CoCr head on Ti stem).

Question 3376

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A patient is undergoing revision of a failed metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty due to severe trunnionosis. The well-fixed titanium femoral stem will be retained, but the trunnion is macroscopically damaged. Which of the following head component combinations is most appropriate to place on the damaged trunnion?

. A new cobalt-chromium head of a larger diameter
. A standard ceramic head matched to the taper size
. A ceramic head with a titanium adapter sleeve
. A stainless steel head
. A unipolar head with a large polyethelene liner

Correct Answer & Explanation

. A new cobalt-chromium head of a larger diameter


Explanation

Placing a rigid ceramic head directly onto a damaged titanium trunnion can lead to catastrophic ceramic fracture due to point loading. The standard of care is to use a ceramic head equipped with a titanium adapter sleeve to securely interface with the deformed trunnion.

Question 3377

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 45-year-old man presents with a Pipkin type II femoral head fracture associated with a posterior hip dislocation. The dislocation is successfully reduced in the emergency department, but the large fracture fragment remains displaced superior to the fovea capitis. What is the recommended surgical management?

. Closed treatment with skeletal traction for 6 weeks
. Excision of the fracture fragment
. Primary total hip arthroplasty
. Open reduction and internal fixation
. Core decompression

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Closed treatment with skeletal traction for 6 weeks


Explanation

Pipkin type II fractures involve the weight-bearing portion of the femoral head (superior to the fovea). In a young, active patient, these require anatomic reduction and stable fixation (ORIF) to preserve the joint and minimize the risk of post-traumatic arthritis.

Question 3378

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 60-year-old highly active man undergoes a primary total hip arthroplasty using a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. Two years postoperatively, he complains of a reproducible, audible squeaking sound from the hip during deep flexion. Radiographs show a well-fixed implant but with a steeply positioned acetabular component. What is the most likely biomechanical cause of the squeaking?

. Third-body wear from retained polymethylmethacrylate
. Impingement of the anterior femoral neck on the acetabular rim
. Edge loading due to component malposition
. Spontaneous microscopic fracture of the ceramic liner
. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the head-neck junction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Third-body wear from retained polymethylmethacrylate


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is heavily associated with edge loading, typically caused by acetabular component malposition (e.g., steep inclination or excessive anteversion). Edge loading disrupts fluid film lubrication, resulting in stripe wear and acoustic emissions.

Question 3379

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In the evaluation of a painful total hip arthroplasty, synovial fluid is aspirated and sent for an alpha-defensin test to rule out periprosthetic joint infection (PJI). Which of the following best describes the biologic function and source of alpha-defensin?

. It is a pro-inflammatory cytokine secreted by macrophages
. It is an acute-phase reactant synthesized by the liver
. It is an antimicrobial peptide released by neutrophils
. It is a degradative enzyme produced by osteoclasts during osteolysis
. It is a biofilm-degrading protein secreted by fibroblasts

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It is a pro-inflammatory cytokine secreted by macrophages


Explanation

Alpha-defensin is an antimicrobial peptide naturally released by activated human neutrophils in response to invading pathogens. It serves as a highly specific biomarker in synovial fluid for diagnosing periprosthetic joint infection.

Question 3380

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

The widespread use of highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) in total hip arthroplasty has significantly reduced volumetric wear rates compared to conventional ultra-high-molecular-weight polyethylene. Which of the following biomechanical properties is typically DECREASED as a direct result of the high irradiation cross-linking process?

. Oxidation resistance
. Elastic modulus
. Fatigue crack propagation resistance
. Surface hardness
. Melting temperature

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Oxidation resistance


Explanation

While high irradiation increases cross-linking and dramatically improves wear resistance, it also alters the material's mechanical properties, notably decreasing its fatigue crack propagation resistance and overall ductility. Subsequent melting or annealing is required to eliminate free radicals and maintain oxidation resistance.