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Question 3321

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total hip arthroplasty, the acetabular component is inadvertently placed in 45 degrees of abduction and 40 degrees of anteversion. This specific malpositioning places the patient at highest risk for which of the following complications?

. Posterior dislocation during hip flexion and internal rotation
. Anterior dislocation during hip extension and external rotation
. Lateral subluxation during hip abduction
. Ischial tuberosity impingement
. Superior migration of the un-cemented cup

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Posterior dislocation during hip flexion and internal rotation


Explanation

Excessive anteversion of the acetabular component decreases anterior coverage of the femoral head. This malposition predisposes the hip to anterior dislocation, particularly when the hip is subjected to extension and external rotation.

Question 3322

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A surgeon is evaluating a patient for the surgical management of a confirmed chronic periprosthetic joint infection of the hip. Under current consensus guidelines, which of the following is considered an absolute contraindication to performing a single-stage revision?

. Infection with a Gram-positive organism
. The use of fully porous-coated components in the primary surgery
. Patient age greater than 75 years
. An unidentified pathogen lacking preoperative sensitivity data
. The presence of a sinus tract

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Infection with a Gram-positive organism


Explanation

Successful single-stage revision for PJI relies heavily on the use of targeted, organism-specific antibiotic-loaded cement. An unknown preoperative organism is an absolute contraindication because an effective antibiotic strategy cannot be formulated.

Question 3323

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In a primary total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon decides to upsize the femoral head from 28 mm to 36 mm. Assuming the neck geometry remains the same, this modification increases stability primarily by improving which two factors?

. Acetabular component offset and poly thickness
. Impingement-free range of motion and jump distance
. Trunnion stiffness and head-neck taper friction
. Abductor lever arm and center of rotation
. Femoral offset and leg length

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular component offset and poly thickness


Explanation

Larger femoral heads increase the head-to-neck ratio, thereby improving the impingement-free range of motion. They also increase the jump distance, which is the vertical distance the head must translate to dislocate from the acetabular liner.

Question 3324

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old woman sustains a fall and complains of left hip pain. Radiographs reveal a periprosthetic femur fracture located around the tip of her cemented femoral stem. The stem demonstrates circumferential radiolucent lines indicating loosening, but her proximal bone stock remains robust and adequate. According to the Vancouver classification, what is the appropriate categorization and optimal management?

. Vancouver A; treat with open reduction and internal fixation
. Vancouver B1; treat with open reduction and internal fixation with cables and plate
. Vancouver B2; treat with revision to a long porous-coated or fluted tapered stem
. Vancouver B3; treat with revision to a proximal femoral replacement
. Vancouver C; treat with open reduction and internal fixation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vancouver A; treat with open reduction and internal fixation


Explanation

Vancouver B2 fractures involve a loose stem but adequate surrounding bone stock. The standard of care is revision arthroplasty using a long, extensively porous-coated or fluted tapered stem to bypass the fracture and achieve stable fixation.

Question 3325

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old man presents with recurrent posterior dislocations of his primary total hip arthroplasty. Postoperative CT imaging demonstrates that the acetabular component is positioned at 10 degrees of anteversion and 35 degrees of inclination. The femoral stem has 15 degrees of anteversion. Which of the following is the most likely primary mechanical cause for his instability?

. Insufficient femoral offset
. Excessive acetabular anteversion
. Insufficient acetabular anteversion
. Excessive acetabular inclination
. Impingement of the greater trochanter

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Insufficient femoral offset


Explanation

The normal target for acetabular cup positioning (Lewinnek's safe zone) is 15-20 degrees of anteversion. A cup positioned at 10 degrees is relatively retroverted (insufficiently anteverted), which strongly predisposes the hip to posterior dislocation.

Question 3326

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 40-year-old man taking high-dose corticosteroids for systemic lupus erythematosus presents with severe right groin pain. Radiographs reveal a subchondral crescent sign in the anterosuperior aspect of the femoral head, without gross flattening of the articular surface. What is the most reliable definitive treatment to relieve his pain and restore function?

. Core decompression with bone marrow aspirate concentrate
. Prolonged non-weight bearing with bisphosphonates
. Total hip arthroplasty
. Free vascularized fibular grafting
. Extracorporeal shockwave therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Core decompression with bone marrow aspirate concentrate


Explanation

A subchondral crescent sign indicates subchondral fracture and structural collapse, consistent with Ficat stage III osteonecrosis. At this stage, joint-preserving procedures like core decompression have poor success rates, making total hip arthroplasty the most reliable definitive treatment.

Question 3327

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 28-year-old highly active woman is undergoing total hip arthroplasty for severe secondary osteoarthritis due to hip dysplasia. To minimize volumetric wear and avoid complications associated with metal ion release, what is the most appropriate articulating surface combination?

. Metal-on-highly cross-linked polyethylene
. Ceramic-on-highly cross-linked polyethylene
. Metal-on-metal
. Ceramic-on-ceramic
. Oxinium-on-conventional polyethylene

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metal-on-highly cross-linked polyethylene


Explanation

Ceramic-on-ceramic bearings offer the lowest volumetric wear rates of any bearing surface, making them ideal for young, highly active patients. They completely avoid the potential toxicity, pseudotumor risks, and systemic ion elevation associated with metal-on-metal bearings.

Question 3328

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old man presents with a painful total hip arthroplasty 3 years postoperatively. His ESR is 45 mm/hr and CRP is 25 mg/L. Aspiration of the hip yields synovial fluid with a WBC count of 4,500 cells/uL and 85% polymorphonuclear neutrophils. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. One-stage exchange revision arthroplasty
. Two-stage revision arthroplasty with an antibiotic spacer
. Lifelong suppressive oral antibiotics
. Polyethylene liner exchange with retention of metal components
. Observation and repeat aspiration in 6 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. One-stage exchange revision arthroplasty


Explanation

The elevated ESR, CRP, and synovial fluid parameters (>3,000 WBCs/uL and >80% PMNs) confirm a chronic periprosthetic joint infection. The gold standard for chronic periprosthetic joint infection in North America remains a two-stage revision arthroplasty.

Question 3329

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old man complains of mild groin pain 12 years after a primary total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs show a well-fixed cementless femoral stem and a well-fixed porous-coated acetabular shell. However, there is significant eccentric polyethylene wear and a large superior uncontained acetabular osteolytic defect. What is the most appropriate management?

. Observation with annual radiographic follow-up
. Polyethylene liner exchange with curettage and bone grafting of the lytic defect
. Revision of the acetabular component to an oversized multi-hole jumbo cup
. Revision of both the femoral and acetabular components
. Resection arthroplasty (Girdlestone procedure)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Observation with annual radiographic follow-up


Explanation

In the presence of an expansile osteolytic lesion but a definitively well-fixed and well-positioned acetabular shell, isolated polyethylene liner exchange combined with thorough curettage and bone grafting of the defect is the indicated tissue-sparing procedure.

Question 3330

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old woman with a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty presents 4 years postoperatively with groin pain and a palpable anterior thigh mass. MRI demonstrates a large cystic collection. Aspiration reveals sterile, cloudy fluid. What is the most likely histologic finding in the periarticular tissues?

. Extensive acute neutrophil infiltration
. Birefringent particles visible strictly under polarized light
. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrate with metal-laden macrophages
. Non-caseating granulomas with giant cells
. Malignant spindle cells with high mitotic index

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Extensive acute neutrophil infiltration


Explanation

This presentation is classic for an adverse local tissue reaction (ALVAL/pseudotumor) secondary to metal wear debris. Histological examination typically reveals a delayed type IV hypersensitivity reaction characterized by perivascular lymphocytic infiltration and macrophages containing metal particles.

Question 3331

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old man is scheduled for a revision total hip arthroplasty. He has a history of severe, functionally limiting heterotopic ossification (Brooker class III) following his primary surgery. What is the most effective and appropriate prophylactic regimen to prevent recurrence?

. Oral indomethacin 25 mg TID for 1 week
. A single fraction of 700 cGy radiation administered within 72 hours postoperatively
. Intravenous bisphosphonates for 3 months postoperatively
. Low molecular weight heparin for 28 days
. Continuous passive motion machine for 6 hours daily

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Oral indomethacin 25 mg TID for 1 week


Explanation

Patients with a history of high-grade heterotopic ossification are at significant risk for recurrence after revision surgery. A single fraction of 700-800 cGy localized radiation given within 24 hours preoperatively or 72 hours postoperatively is a highly effective prophylactic measure.

Question 3332

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 40-year-old active man reports a loud, audible "squeaking" sound originating from his hip when he bends to tie his shoes, 3 years after a primary total hip arthroplasty. He has no pain. Which of the following bearing surface combinations is most commonly associated with this specific phenomenon?

. Metal-on-polyethylene
. Ceramic-on-ceramic
. Metal-on-metal
. Ceramic-on-polyethylene
. Oxinium-on-polyethylene

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Metal-on-polyethylene


Explanation

Audible squeaking is a distinct complication largely unique to ceramic-on-ceramic articulations. It can be triggered by edge loading, microseparation, or impingement, and while socially disruptive, it is not always associated with component failure.

Question 3333

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Lewinnek established a radiographic "safe zone" for acetabular component positioning to reduce the risk of postoperative dislocation in total hip arthroplasty. What are the classically described recommended target angles for cup inclination and anteversion?

. 30° ± 10° inclination, 10° ± 10° anteversion
. 40° ± 10° inclination, 15° ± 10° anteversion
. 50° ± 10° inclination, 20° ± 10° anteversion
. 45° ± 10° inclination, 25° ± 10° anteversion
. 35° ± 10° inclination, 5° ± 10° anteversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 30° ± 10° inclination, 10° ± 10° anteversion


Explanation

Lewinnek's classic safe zone for acetabular cup orientation is 40 degrees (+/- 10 degrees) of inclination (abduction) and 15 degrees (+/- 10 degrees) of anteversion. Placements outside these parameters have historically been correlated with a higher risk of dislocation.

Question 3334

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 62-year-old woman complains of localized, sharp anterior groin pain that is exacerbated by initiating an active straight leg raise. Her symptoms began 6 months following an uncemented total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs reveal a slightly oversized acetabular component with anterior rim overhang. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Aseptic loosening of the femoral stem
. Iliopsoas impingement
. Heterotopic ossification
. Adductor tendinitis
. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aseptic loosening of the femoral stem


Explanation

Iliopsoas impingement presents as anterior groin pain that worsens with active hip flexion (e.g., straight leg raise or climbing stairs) following THA. It is commonly associated with an anteriorly prominent acetabular cup or retained cement in the anterior compartment.

Question 3335

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old woman presents with her third posterior dislocation of a total hip arthroplasty (THA) performed 6 months ago. Radiographs demonstrate an acetabular component inclination of 40 degrees and anteversion of 5 degrees. The femoral stem has 15 degrees of anteversion. What is the most likely cause of her recurrent instability?

. Acetabular component relative retroversion
. Excessive femoral anteversion
. Acetabular component excessive inclination
. Abductor deficiency
. Polyethylene wear

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular component relative retroversion


Explanation

Normal acetabular anteversion is typically 15 to 20 degrees. An anteversion of 5 degrees represents relative retroversion (under-anteversion), which strongly predisposes the joint to posterior dislocation.

Question 3336

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old man presents with insidious onset of groin pain 8 years after a metal-on-metal total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs show well-fixed components with no osteolysis. Laboratory tests show normal ESR and CRP. What is the most appropriate next step in evaluation?

. Aspiration of the hip for culture
. Bone scintigraphy
. Revision to a ceramic-on-polyethylene bearing
. Serum cobalt and chromium levels and a MARS MRI
. Observation and physical therapy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Aspiration of the hip for culture


Explanation

In a patient with a metal-on-metal THA presenting with pain and normal radiographs, an adverse local tissue reaction (ALVAL/pseudotumor) must be suspected. Serum metal ion levels and a metal artifact reduction sequence (MARS) MRI are the standard diagnostic steps.

Question 3337

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old man with a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty complains of a loud, reproducible squeaking noise coming from his hip when he walks or bends. What is the most commonly associated cause of this phenomenon?

. Trunnionosis
. Adverse local tissue reaction
. Component malposition leading to edge loading
. Third-body wear from retained cement
. Fatigue failure of the femoral stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Trunnionosis


Explanation

Squeaking in a ceramic-on-ceramic THA is highly associated with edge loading of the bearing surfaces. This is most frequently caused by acetabular component malposition, such as excessive inclination or version.

Question 3338

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old man with a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty (large cobalt-chromium head on a titanium alloy stem) presents with new-onset hip pain 5 years postoperatively. Blood work reveals a markedly elevated serum cobalt level with a normal serum chromium level. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Polyethylene wear-induced osteolysis
. Prosthetic joint infection
. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (Trunnionosis)
. Galvanic corrosion of the acetabular shell
. Aseptic loosening of the femoral component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Polyethylene wear-induced osteolysis


Explanation

Elevated cobalt levels out of proportion to chromium in a metal-on-polyethylene THA strongly suggests mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (trunnionosis) at the modular head-neck taper junction.

Question 3339

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During the placement of a cementless acetabular component in a THA, supplemental screw fixation is planned. To minimize the risk of devastating vascular injury, screws should be placed exclusively in which quadrant?

. Anterosuperior
. Anteroinferior
. Posterosuperior
. Posteroinferior
. Direct central

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anterosuperior


Explanation

The posterosuperior quadrant is the 'safe zone' for acetabular screw placement. Screws placed in the anterior quadrants risk injuring the external iliac vessels (anterosuperior) and obturator vessels (anteroinferior).

Question 3340

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A patient presents for a 6-week follow-up after a left THA complaining that the operative leg feels significantly longer. Standing radiographs confirm that the center of rotation is restored and absolute leg lengths are equal, but the femoral offset is increased by 8 mm on the operative side. What is the cause of the patient's perceived leg length discrepancy?

. Sciatic nerve neuropraxia
. Subsidence of the femoral stem
. Pelvic obliquity driven by increased abductor tension
. Pre-existing fixed spinal deformity
. Iliopsoas contracture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Sciatic nerve neuropraxia


Explanation

Increasing femoral offset tensions the abductor musculature. This can cause the patient to adopt a pelvic obliquity that makes the leg feel longer (apparent leg length discrepancy), even when true leg lengths are perfectly equalized.