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Question 2981

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient presents 4 weeks post-TKA with acute onset of severe knee pain, erythema, and swelling. Synovial fluid aspiration shows 45,000 WBC/uL with 95% neutrophils. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial surgical management?

. Aspiration and intravenous antibiotics for 6 weeks
. Arthroscopic irrigation and debridement
. Open irrigation and debridement with modular polyethylene exchange
. Single-stage complete component revision
. Two-stage component revision with an antibiotic spacer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open irrigation and debridement with modular polyethylene exchange


Explanation

For an acute postoperative periprosthetic joint infection (less than 90 days from index surgery), open debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR) with modular component exchange is the treatment of choice.

Question 2982

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Which of the following implant design factors most significantly increases the risk of mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (trunnionosis) in a total hip arthroplasty?

. Small femoral head diameter
. Large femoral head diameter
. Increased trunnion length
. Ceramic femoral head
. Use of a cemented stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Large femoral head diameter


Explanation

A larger femoral head diameter increases the lever arm and frictional torque at the modular head-neck junction. This exacerbates micromotion and increases the risk of trunnionosis.

Question 2983

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient who underwent a posterior-stabilized TKA one year ago complains of a painful "pop" when actively extending the knee from a flexed position. What is the most likely etiology of this symptom?

. Avascular necrosis of the patella
. Fibrous nodule on the superior pole of the patella
. Asymmetric polyethylene wear
. Loosening of the tibial baseplate
. Patellar tendon rupture

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fibrous nodule on the superior pole of the patella


Explanation

This presentation is classic for patellar clunk syndrome, caused by a fibrous nodule forming on the superior pole of the patella that catches in the intercondylar box of a posterior-stabilized femoral component during extension.

Question 2984

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old woman undergoes a total hip arthroplasty through a posterior approach. Postoperatively, she experiences recurrent posterior dislocations. Radiographs show the acetabular component is placed in 30 degrees of abduction and 5 degrees of retroversion. What is the primary cause of her posterior instability?

. Insufficient acetabular abduction
. Insufficient acetabular anteversion
. Excessive femoral offset
. Excessive acetabular anteversion
. Excessive acetabular abduction

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Insufficient acetabular anteversion


Explanation

The normal target for acetabular cup position is approximately 40 degrees of abduction and 15 to 20 degrees of anteversion. Retroversion heavily predisposes the hip to posterior dislocation, making insufficient anteversion the primary cause of instability in this patient.

Question 2985

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, the posterior cruciate ligament is resected to accommodate the implant box. Which vascular structure is most directly at risk of injury during this specific step and frequently requires electrocautery?

. Popliteal artery
. Middle genicular artery
. Inferior lateral genicular artery
. Superior medial genicular artery
. Recurrent tibial artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Middle genicular artery


Explanation

The middle genicular artery is a branch of the popliteal artery that enters the knee joint through the posterior capsule directly behind the posterior cruciate ligament. It is frequently encountered and requires cauterization during PCL resection.

Question 2986

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old woman presents with a painful catching sensation in her knee 9 months after a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty. The catching occurs as she actively extends her knee from a flexed position, specifically around 30 to 40 degrees of flexion. What is the most likely etiology?

. Oversized femoral component
. Fibrous nodule at the superior pole of the patella
. Patellar maltracking due to an internally rotated femoral component
. Loose tibial baseplate
. Excessive polyethylene insert thickness

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Fibrous nodule at the superior pole of the patella


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome occurs in posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasties when a fibrous nodule forms at the superior pole of the patella. This nodule catches in the intercondylar notch of the femoral component during extension from a flexed position.

Question 2987

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old man undergoes a total hip arthroplasty using a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing. Two years postoperatively, he complains of a loud, audible squeaking sound from his hip when walking. Which of the following factors is most strongly associated with this phenomenon?

. Femoral stem retroversion
. Decreased femoral head diameter
. Edge loading due to acetabular component malposition
. Inadequate femoral offset
. Spontaneous localized metallosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Edge loading due to acetabular component malposition


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty is highly associated with edge loading. This abnormal contact typically results from acetabular component malposition, leading to a loss of fluid film lubrication and high contact stresses.

Question 2988

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 70-year-old man presents with a painful, swollen total knee arthroplasty 4 years after the index surgery. Radiographs show no component loosening. Aspiration of the knee yields synovial fluid with a white blood cell count of 15,000 cells/ยตL and 85% polymorphonuclear neutrophils. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

. Oral antibiotics for 6 weeks
. Two-stage revision arthroplasty
. Irrigation and debridement with polyethylene exchange
. Intravenous antibiotics for 6 weeks followed by reaspiration
. One-stage revision arthroplasty

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Two-stage revision arthroplasty


Explanation

A synovial WBC count > 3,000 cells/ยตL with > 80% PMNs is diagnostic for a chronic periprosthetic joint infection. The gold standard for eradicating a chronic PJI (occurring >4 weeks postoperatively) in North America is a two-stage revision arthroplasty.

Question 2989

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

Following a total hip arthroplasty, the patient complains that the operative leg feels too long. Postoperative radiographs reveal the center of rotation of the femoral head is superior to the tip of the greater trochanter, and the teardrop-to-lesser trochanter distance is increased by 15 mm compared to the contralateral side. Which intraoperative adjustment would have best prevented this?

. Using a femoral head with a shorter neck length
. Using a femoral stem with a high offset
. Placing the acetabular cup more inferiorly
. Increasing the neck cut resection level
. Using a lateralized liner

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increasing the neck cut resection level


Explanation

Increasing the neck cut resection level lowers the seating of the femoral stem, effectively decreasing leg length without necessarily compromising femoral offset. While a shorter head would also decrease leg length, it would simultaneously decrease offset and potentially compromise stability.

Question 2990

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Polyethylene wear in total knee arthroplasty (TKA) often differs from that in total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following best describes the predominant wear mechanism that led to failure in historical flat-on-flat (non-conforming) TKA polyethylene inserts?

. Adhesive wear
. Abrasive wear
. Delamination and pitting (fatigue wear)
. Third-body wear
. Galvanic corrosion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Delamination and pitting (fatigue wear)


Explanation

Delamination and pitting are forms of fatigue wear, which were the predominant failure mechanisms in older, non-conforming flat-on-flat TKA designs. These occurred due to high subsurface cyclic shear stresses, contrasting with the adhesive and abrasive wear typical of THA.

Question 2991

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In a normal knee, femoral rollback refers to the posterior translation of the femoral contact point on the tibia during deep flexion. In a cruciate-retaining total knee arthroplasty, which of the following is essential to achieve appropriate femoral rollback?

. Resection of the posterior cruciate ligament
. An intact posterior cruciate ligament with appropriate tension
. A highly conforming polyethylene insert
. A cam-and-post mechanism
. Excessive posterior slope of the tibial cut

Correct Answer & Explanation

. An intact posterior cruciate ligament with appropriate tension


Explanation

In a cruciate-retaining TKA, an intact and appropriately balanced posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) is required to drive posterior femoral rollback during knee flexion. This rollback improves maximal flexion and optimizes the quadriceps lever arm.

Question 2992

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon evaluates the flexion and extension gaps. The extension gap is symmetric and perfectly balanced, but the flexion gap is excessively tight. Which of the following maneuvers is the most appropriate to address this specific mismatch?

. Resect more distal femur
. Release the posterior capsule
. Downsize the femoral component
. Recut the tibia to remove more bone
. Increase the size of the femoral component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component


Explanation

A tight flexion gap with a balanced extension gap indicates the anteroposterior dimension of the femur is too large. Downsizing the femoral component (with an anterior referencing system) resects more posterior condylar bone, opening the flexion gap without affecting the extension gap.

Question 2993

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 62-year-old man presents with groin pain and swelling 5 years after a primary metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty. MRI with metal artifact reduction shows a solid periprosthetic pseudotumor. Aspiration yields negative cultures. Which of the following implant factors is most strongly associated with this condition?

. Acetabular retroversion
. Use of a 28-mm cobalt-chrome femoral head
. Use of an extended offset femoral stem with a large cobalt-chrome head
. Cross-linked polyethylene wear
. Titanium-on-titanium bearing surface

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Use of an extended offset femoral stem with a large cobalt-chrome head


Explanation

Trunnionosis (mechanically assisted crevice corrosion) occurs at the modular head-neck junction. It is strongly associated with large-diameter cobalt-chrome heads and high-offset stems, which increase the torsional forces and fretting at the trunnion.

Question 2994

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
Which of the following modifications in the manufacturing of ultra-high molecular weight polyethylene (UHMWPE) has been most effective in significantly reducing the incidence of periprosthetic osteolysis in total hip arthroplasty?
. Gamma irradiation in air
. High cross-linking via radiation followed by thermal melting or annealing
. Sterilization exclusively with ethylene oxide
. Increasing the thickness of the polyethylene liner
. Eliminating the metal backing of the acetabular component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. High cross-linking via radiation followed by thermal melting or annealing


Explanation

Highly cross-linked polyethylene, treated with electron beam or gamma radiation and subsequently thermally treated (melted or annealed) to extinguish free radicals, has dramatically reduced volumetric wear rates and subsequent macrophage-mediated osteolysis.

Question 2995

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty for severe varus osteoarthritis, the surgeon inadvertently transects the superficial medial collateral ligament (MCL) at its mid-substance. Which of the following is the most appropriate intraoperative management?

. Primary repair of the MCL and use of a cruciate-retaining implant
. Primary repair of the MCL and use of a posterior-stabilized implant
. Primary repair of the MCL and use of a constrained condylar knee (CCK) implant
. Use of an unconstrained implant followed by 6 weeks of cast immobilization
. Use of a rotating-hinge knee implant without ligament repair

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Primary repair of the MCL and use of a constrained condylar knee (CCK) implant


Explanation

Intraoperative midsubstance transection of the MCL creates profound coronal plane instability. The standard of care is primary repair of the ligament combined with a constrained condylar knee (CCK) implant to protect the repair and provide immediate stability.

Question 2996

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 58-year-old woman with a documented history of severe, blistering skin reactions to cheap jewelry is scheduled for a total knee arthroplasty. What is the most common metal sensitizer in orthopedic implants, and what is the most appropriate alternative implant choice for her?

. Nickel; Oxidized zirconium (Oxinium) femoral component
. Chromium; Titanium femoral component
. Cobalt; Stainless steel femoral component
. Titanium; Cobalt-chrome femoral component
. Vanadium; All-polyethylene components

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Nickel; Oxidized zirconium (Oxinium) femoral component


Explanation

Nickel is the most common metal sensitizer implicated in hypersensitivity reactions. For patients with documented severe metal allergies, using a hypoallergenic implant such as oxidized zirconium (Oxinium) or an all-titanium component is recommended.

Question 2997

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 75-year-old woman with a history of a long-segment lumbar spinal fusion (L2 to the sacrum) is undergoing a primary total hip arthroplasty. How does her spinal fusion alter her spinopelvic kinematics when moving from a standing to a seated position, and how should cup positioning be adjusted?

. Her pelvis will excessively posteriorly tilt; the cup requires less anteversion.
. Her pelvis will fail to posteriorly tilt; the cup requires more anteversion.
. Her pelvis will excessively anteriorly tilt; the cup requires more anteversion.
. Her pelvis will fail to anteriorly tilt; the cup requires less anteversion.
. Her spinopelvic kinematics will remain unchanged; standard cup positioning is indicated.

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Her pelvis will fail to posteriorly tilt; the cup requires more anteversion.


Explanation

In patients with spinopelvic stiffness (e.g., lumbar fusion), the pelvis fails to posteriorly tilt when moving from standing to sitting. This lack of functional acetabular anteversion during sitting increases the risk of anterior impingement and posterior dislocation, necessitating greater cup anteversion.

Question 2998

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In a revision total hip arthroplasty, the preoperative radiograph demonstrates severe acetabular bone loss with upward migration of the hip center by 3.5 cm, teardrop osteolysis, and destruction of the Kohler line. According to the Paprosky classification, this bone loss pattern is best described as:
. Type IIA
. Type IIB
. Type IIC
. Type IIIA
. Type IIIB

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Type IIIB


Explanation

Paprosky Type IIIB defects are characterized by severe structural bone loss with greater than 3 cm of superior migration of the hip center and disruption of the Kohler line (medial migration). This implies an unsupportive superior dome and medial wall, often requiring a custom triflange or cup-cage construct.

Question 2999

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon uses trial components to assess ligamentous balancing. The extension gap is found to be symmetric and well-balanced, but the flexion gap is excessively tight both medially and laterally. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical step to achieve a balanced knee?

. Recut the distal femur to remove more bone
. Release the posterior capsule
. Downsize the femoral component
. Use a thinner tibial polyethylene insert
. Release the posterior cruciate ligament

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component


Explanation

Downsizing the femoral component reduces its anteroposterior (AP) dimension. This effectively increases the size of the flexion gap without altering the balanced extension gap.

Question 3000

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old man presents with insidious onset of pain 3 years after a total hip arthroplasty. Laboratory evaluation shows an ESR of 45 mm/hr and a CRP of 18 mg/L. Joint aspiration yields a white blood cell count of 4,800 cells/uL with 88% neutrophils. Based on current consensus guidelines, what is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR)
. Single-stage exchange arthroplasty
. Two-stage exchange arthroplasty
. Lifelong suppressive oral antibiotics
. Repeat joint aspiration in 6 weeks

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Two-stage exchange arthroplasty


Explanation

The synovial fluid analysis meets the major criteria for a chronic periprosthetic joint infection (WBC >3000, PMN >80%). Two-stage exchange arthroplasty remains the gold standard for chronic PJI in North America.