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Question 3001

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In the manufacturing process of highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) for total hip arthroplasty, post-irradiation melting above the melting temperature (135 degrees Celsius) alters the material's properties. Which of the following statements best describes the result of this thermal treatment?

. It eliminates residual free radicals but decreases mechanical yield strength
. It eliminates free radicals and increases material fatigue strength
. It preserves crystallinity and decreases wear resistance
. It increases free radicals and decreases overall wear resistance
. It maintains all mechanical properties but leaves residual free radicals

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It eliminates residual free radicals but decreases mechanical yield strength


Explanation

Remelting HXLPE above its melting point extinguishes all residual free radicals, preventing future oxidation. However, the process reduces the polymer's crystallinity, which decreases its mechanical yield strength and fatigue resistance.

Question 3002

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old woman presents with a painful, audible clunking sensation when extending her knee from a flexed position. She underwent a primary posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty 14 months ago. What is the most appropriate surgical management for this condition?

. Revision of the femoral component
. Exchange of the tibial polyethylene insert
. Open patellar resurfacing
. Arthroscopic debridement of the retropatellar fibrosynovial nodule
. Lateral retinacular release

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic debridement of the retropatellar fibrosynovial nodule


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome occurs primarily in posterior-stabilized knees due to a fibrosynovial nodule forming at the superior pole of the patella, which catches in the intercondylar box during extension. Arthroscopic debridement of the nodule is highly effective.

Question 3003

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old woman sustains a periprosthetic femur fracture 8 years after a cemented total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs demonstrate a fracture spiral around the tip of the stem, accompanied by stem subsidence and focal osteolysis in the proximal femur, though distal bone stock is robust. What is the most appropriate treatment?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate
. Revision to a standard length cementless stem
. Revision to a long fully porous-coated or fluted tapered modular stem
. Cortical strut allografting alone
. Proximal femoral replacement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a long fully porous-coated or fluted tapered modular stem


Explanation

This scenario describes a Vancouver B2 fracture (fracture around the stem, loose component, adequate bone stock). The standard of care is revision arthroplasty using a long stem that bypasses the fracture by at least two cortical diameters, such as a fluted tapered modular stem.

Question 3004

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During the femoral preparation of a total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon inadvertently places the femoral component in excessive internal rotation. Which of the following intraoperative findings is the direct result of this specific error?

. Tight medial flexion gap and lateral patellar tracking
. Tight lateral flexion gap and medial patellar tracking
. Symmetrical flexion gap but prominent patella baja
. Loose medial extension gap and patella alta
. Tight lateral extension gap and lateral patellar tracking

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tight medial flexion gap and lateral patellar tracking


Explanation

Internal rotation of the femoral component lowers the medial posterior condyle and elevates the lateral posterior condyle relative to the tibial cut. This creates a tight medial flexion gap and induces lateral patellar maltracking.

Question 3005

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 55-year-old active man who underwent a total hip arthroplasty with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing 2 years ago presents with a loud, audible squeaking from his hip during ambulation. Radiographic evaluation is most likely to reveal which of the following acetabular component malpositions as the primary contributor?

. Excessive cup retroversion
. Steep cup inclination
. Insufficient cup offset
. Horizontal cup inclination
. Isolated pelvic discontinuity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Steep cup inclination


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic hips is highly associated with edge loading and subsequent stripe wear. This complication most frequently occurs when the acetabular cup is positioned with steep inclination or excessive anteversion.

Question 3006

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 58-year-old man with isolated medial compartment osteoarthritis is being evaluated for a unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA). Which of the following findings on clinical and radiographic evaluation represents a strict contraindication to a mobile-bearing UKA?

. Age greater than 55 years
. Body Mass Index (BMI) of 32
. Deficient anterior cruciate ligament
. Asymptomatic patellofemoral chondromalacia
. Medial joint pain with weight-bearing

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Deficient anterior cruciate ligament


Explanation

An anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) deficiency alters the kinematic rollback of the knee, which dramatically increases the risk of bearing spin-out and premature failure in a mobile-bearing unicompartmental knee arthroplasty.

Question 3007

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 64-year-old man presents with a painful groin mass 5 years after receiving a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty using a large 36-mm cobalt-chromium femoral head. Joint aspiration reveals thick, sterile fluid with a low WBC count. Serum cobalt levels are significantly higher than chromium levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Periprosthetic joint infection
. Polyethylene wear-induced osteolysis
. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (Trunnionosis)
. Metal hypersensitivity (ALVAL)
. Aseptic loosening of the acetabular cup

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (Trunnionosis)


Explanation

Trunnionosis is a form of mechanically assisted crevice corrosion that occurs at the modular head-neck junction, commonly seen with large metal heads. It is characterized by adverse local tissue reactions, sterile effusions, and serum cobalt levels that disproportionately exceed chromium levels.

Question 3008

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon meticulously restores the patient's native femoral offset. Which of the following biomechanical advantages is achieved by this specific surgical goal?

. Decreases the moment arm of the abductor musculature
. Increases the joint reaction force across the hip
. Decreases the resting tension of the abductor musculature, increasing wear
. Increases the abductor moment arm, reducing the required abductor force
. Decreases the risk of sciatic nerve neuropraxia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Increases the abductor moment arm, reducing the required abductor force


Explanation

Restoring or increasing femoral offset increases the moment arm of the abductor muscles. This improves their mechanical advantage, reducing the muscle force required to maintain pelvic stability and consequently lowering the joint reaction force across the hip.

Question 3009

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient reports persistent knee instability and giving way when descending stairs 1 year after a total knee arthroplasty. On examination, the knee is completely stable at 0 degrees and 90 degrees of flexion, but exhibits profound laxity at 45 degrees of flexion. Radiographs demonstrate significant joint line elevation. What is the most likely underlying cause?

. Undersized femoral component
. Over-resection of the distal femur compensated by a thick polyethylene insert
. Complete rupture of the posterior cruciate ligament
. Undersized tibial component
. Medial patellofemoral ligament deficiency

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Over-resection of the distal femur compensated by a thick polyethylene insert


Explanation

Mid-flexion instability classically results from joint line elevation. If the distal femur is over-resected, a thicker tibial insert is used to balance extension and 90-degree flexion, but this leaves the collateral ligaments lax in the mid-arc of motion.

Question 3010

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 55-year-old active male presents with an audible squeaking sound from his hip 2 years after a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following component positions is most highly associated with this complication?

. Acetabular cup excessive inclination
. Femoral stem varus
. Femoral stem excessive anteversion
. Acetabular cup excessive medialization
. Acetabular cup retroversion

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Acetabular cup excessive inclination


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty is most commonly associated with component malposition, specifically excessive acetabular cup inclination and anteversion. Edge loading due to these malpositions causes microseparation and squeaking.

Question 3011

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon evaluates the gaps and notes a symmetric, balanced flexion gap but an extension gap that is tight symmetrically. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical maneuver to balance the knee?

. Increase the posterior slope of the tibial baseplate
. Release the posterior cruciate ligament
. Recut the distal femur taking additional bone
. Downsize the femoral component
. Recut the proximal tibia taking additional bone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Recut the distal femur taking additional bone


Explanation

A knee that is tight in extension but balanced in flexion requires increasing the extension gap without affecting the flexion gap. This is achieved by resecting more bone from the distal femur.

Question 3012

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old female complains of new-onset anterior groin pain 6 months following an uncomplicated primary total hip arthroplasty. Pain is reproducible with active straight leg raise and resisted hip flexion. Radiographs demonstrate an un-cemented acetabular cup with 10 degrees of anteversion and 40 degrees of inclination. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

. Aseptic loosening of the acetabular component
. Iliopsoas impingement
. Heterotopic ossification
. Femoral stem subsidence
. Adductor tendonitis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliopsoas impingement


Explanation

Anterior groin pain exacerbated by active hip flexion or straight leg raise following THA is classic for iliopsoas impingement. This is often caused by an anteriorly prominent acetabular component or insufficient cup anteversion.

Question 3013

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient presents with a painful popping sensation in the anterior knee 1 year after a posterior stabilized total knee arthroplasty. The pop occurs consistently as the knee moves from flexion to extension, typically around 30 to 40 degrees of flexion. What is the most appropriate initial surgical management?

. Revision of the femoral component
. Revision of the tibial component
. Arthroscopic debridement of the retropatellar nodule
. Open lateral retinacular release
. Patellar tendon advancement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Arthroscopic debridement of the retropatellar nodule


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome occurs in posterior-stabilized TKAs when a fibrous nodule forms at the superior pole of the patella and catches in the femoral intercondylar notch. Arthroscopic excision of the nodule provides excellent and predictable relief of symptoms.

Question 3014

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

In an effort to optimize hip biomechanics during total hip arthroplasty, a surgeon plans to medialize the center of rotation of the acetabulum. Which of the following best describes the mechanical effect of this maneuver?

. Decreases the body weight moment arm and decreases the joint reactive force
. Increases the body weight moment arm and increases the joint reactive force
. Decreases the abductor moment arm and increases the joint reactive force
. Increases the abductor moment arm and increases the joint reactive force
. Decreases the body weight moment arm and increases the joint reactive force

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Decreases the body weight moment arm and decreases the joint reactive force


Explanation

Medializing the center of rotation of the acetabulum decreases the body weight moment arm. This reduces the amount of abductor force required to maintain a level pelvis, thereby decreasing the overall joint reactive force.

Question 3015

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old male presents with acute thigh pain and inability to bear weight after a minor fall. Radiographs demonstrate a periprosthetic femur fracture around a cemented total hip arthroplasty stem. The fracture is located at the tip of the stem, the stem is radiographically loose, and there is good proximal femoral bone stock. Which classification and treatment are most appropriate?

. Vancouver A; open reduction internal fixation with cerclage cables
. Vancouver B1; open reduction internal fixation with a locking plate
. Vancouver B2; revision to a long uncemented diaphyseal engaging stem
. Vancouver B3; revision with a proximal femoral replacement
. Vancouver C; open reduction internal fixation with a locking plate

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Vancouver B2; revision to a long uncemented diaphyseal engaging stem


Explanation

This is a Vancouver B2 periprosthetic fracture, characterized by a fracture around or just below the stem, a loose prosthesis, and adequate bone stock. The standard of care is revision arthroplasty using a long, uncemented, diaphyseal-engaging stem.

Question 3016

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a total knee arthroplasty for a severe fixed valgus deformity, the surgeon proceeds with a lateral soft tissue release. According to the standard inside-out technique, which structure is typically released first after osteophytes are removed?

. Lateral collateral ligament
. Popliteus tendon
. Iliotibial band
. Biceps femoris tendon
. Posterolateral capsule

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Iliotibial band


Explanation

In correcting a fixed valgus deformity during TKA, after removing osteophytes, the iliotibial (IT) band is typically the first structure released. This is followed sequentially by the popliteus, posterolateral capsule, and lateral collateral ligament if necessary.

Question 3017

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A surgeon performs a lateral retinacular release during a total knee arthroplasty to improve patellar tracking. Which vessel is at greatest risk of injury during this procedure, potentially leading to patellar avascular necrosis?

. Superior medial genicular artery
. Superior lateral genicular artery
. Inferior medial genicular artery
. Inferior lateral genicular artery
. Descending genicular artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Superior lateral genicular artery


Explanation

The superior lateral genicular artery is the primary blood supply to the patella and is at significant risk during a lateral retinacular release. Injury to this vessel can lead to patellar avascular necrosis, especially if the medial supply is compromised.

Question 3018

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient develops a foot drop and decreased sensation over the dorsum of the foot immediately following a primary total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. Which specific nerve division is most commonly injured in this scenario?

. Tibial division of the sciatic nerve
. Peroneal division of the sciatic nerve
. Femoral nerve
. Superior gluteal nerve
. Obturator nerve

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Peroneal division of the sciatic nerve


Explanation

Sciatic nerve injury during a posterior THA most frequently involves the peroneal (fibular) division because its fibers are more lateral and tightly tethered. This results in weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and altered dorsal foot sensation.

Question 3019

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A patient presents with a painful total knee arthroplasty 3 years postoperatively. Synovial fluid analysis reveals an elevated alpha-defensin level. What is the primary source of alpha-defensin in the setting of a periprosthetic joint infection?

. Synoviocytes
. Osteoblasts
. Neutrophils
. Macrophages
. T-lymphocytes

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neutrophils


Explanation

Alpha-defensin is an antimicrobial peptide released primarily by neutrophils in response to infection. It serves as a highly sensitive and specific synovial fluid biomarker for diagnosing periprosthetic joint infections.

Question 3020

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old female with a documented severe type IV hypersensitivity reaction to nickel requires a primary total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following femoral component materials is most appropriate to use in this patient?

. Cobalt-chromium alloy
. Stainless steel
. Oxidized zirconium
. Titanium-aluminum-vanadium alloy
. Tantalum

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Oxidized zirconium


Explanation

For patients with significant metal allergies, an oxidized zirconium or entirely titanium implant is preferred. Oxidized zirconium femoral components provide a durable articular surface with minimal release of allergenic metal ions.