This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee). Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 3001
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In the manufacturing process of highly cross-linked polyethylene (HXLPE) for total hip arthroplasty, post-irradiation melting above the melting temperature (135 degrees Celsius) alters the material's properties. Which of the following statements best describes the result of this thermal treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. It eliminates residual free radicals but decreases mechanical yield strength
Explanation
Remelting HXLPE above its melting point extinguishes all residual free radicals, preventing future oxidation. However, the process reduces the polymer's crystallinity, which decreases its mechanical yield strength and fatigue resistance.
Question 3002
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 68-year-old woman presents with a painful, audible clunking sensation when extending her knee from a flexed position. She underwent a primary posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty 14 months ago. What is the most appropriate surgical management for this condition?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic debridement of the retropatellar fibrosynovial nodule
Explanation
Patellar clunk syndrome occurs primarily in posterior-stabilized knees due to a fibrosynovial nodule forming at the superior pole of the patella, which catches in the intercondylar box during extension. Arthroscopic debridement of the nodule is highly effective.
Question 3003
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 72-year-old woman sustains a periprosthetic femur fracture 8 years after a cemented total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs demonstrate a fracture spiral around the tip of the stem, accompanied by stem subsidence and focal osteolysis in the proximal femur, though distal bone stock is robust. What is the most appropriate treatment?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Revision to a long fully porous-coated or fluted tapered modular stem
Explanation
This scenario describes a Vancouver B2 fracture (fracture around the stem, loose component, adequate bone stock). The standard of care is revision arthroplasty using a long stem that bypasses the fracture by at least two cortical diameters, such as a fluted tapered modular stem.
Question 3004
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During the femoral preparation of a total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon inadvertently places the femoral component in excessive internal rotation. Which of the following intraoperative findings is the direct result of this specific error?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Tight medial flexion gap and lateral patellar tracking
Explanation
Internal rotation of the femoral component lowers the medial posterior condyle and elevates the lateral posterior condyle relative to the tibial cut. This creates a tight medial flexion gap and induces lateral patellar maltracking.
Question 3005
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 55-year-old active man who underwent a total hip arthroplasty with a ceramic-on-ceramic bearing 2 years ago presents with a loud, audible squeaking from his hip during ambulation. Radiographic evaluation is most likely to reveal which of the following acetabular component malpositions as the primary contributor?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Steep cup inclination
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic hips is highly associated with edge loading and subsequent stripe wear. This complication most frequently occurs when the acetabular cup is positioned with steep inclination or excessive anteversion.
Question 3006
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 58-year-old man with isolated medial compartment osteoarthritis is being evaluated for a unicompartmental knee arthroplasty (UKA). Which of the following findings on clinical and radiographic evaluation represents a strict contraindication to a mobile-bearing UKA?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Deficient anterior cruciate ligament
Explanation
An anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) deficiency alters the kinematic rollback of the knee, which dramatically increases the risk of bearing spin-out and premature failure in a mobile-bearing unicompartmental knee arthroplasty.
Question 3007
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 64-year-old man presents with a painful groin mass 5 years after receiving a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty using a large 36-mm cobalt-chromium femoral head. Joint aspiration reveals thick, sterile fluid with a low WBC count. Serum cobalt levels are significantly higher than chromium levels. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Trunnionosis is a form of mechanically assisted crevice corrosion that occurs at the modular head-neck junction, commonly seen with large metal heads. It is characterized by adverse local tissue reactions, sterile effusions, and serum cobalt levels that disproportionately exceed chromium levels.
Question 3008
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a total hip arthroplasty, the surgeon meticulously restores the patient's native femoral offset. Which of the following biomechanical advantages is achieved by this specific surgical goal?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Increases the abductor moment arm, reducing the required abductor force
Explanation
Restoring or increasing femoral offset increases the moment arm of the abductor muscles. This improves their mechanical advantage, reducing the muscle force required to maintain pelvic stability and consequently lowering the joint reaction force across the hip.
Question 3009
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A patient reports persistent knee instability and giving way when descending stairs 1 year after a total knee arthroplasty. On examination, the knee is completely stable at 0 degrees and 90 degrees of flexion, but exhibits profound laxity at 45 degrees of flexion. Radiographs demonstrate significant joint line elevation. What is the most likely underlying cause?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Over-resection of the distal femur compensated by a thick polyethylene insert
Explanation
Mid-flexion instability classically results from joint line elevation. If the distal femur is over-resected, a thicker tibial insert is used to balance extension and 90-degree flexion, but this leaves the collateral ligaments lax in the mid-arc of motion.
Question 3010
Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)
A 55-year-old active male presents with an audible squeaking sound from his hip 2 years after a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following component positions is most highly associated with this complication?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Acetabular cup excessive inclination
Explanation
Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty is most commonly associated with component malposition, specifically excessive acetabular cup inclination and anteversion. Edge loading due to these malpositions causes microseparation and squeaking.
Question 3011
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon evaluates the gaps and notes a symmetric, balanced flexion gap but an extension gap that is tight symmetrically. Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical maneuver to balance the knee?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Recut the distal femur taking additional bone
Explanation
A knee that is tight in extension but balanced in flexion requires increasing the extension gap without affecting the flexion gap. This is achieved by resecting more bone from the distal femur.
Question 3012
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 60-year-old female complains of new-onset anterior groin pain 6 months following an uncomplicated primary total hip arthroplasty. Pain is reproducible with active straight leg raise and resisted hip flexion. Radiographs demonstrate an un-cemented acetabular cup with 10 degrees of anteversion and 40 degrees of inclination. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Iliopsoas impingement
Explanation
Anterior groin pain exacerbated by active hip flexion or straight leg raise following THA is classic for iliopsoas impingement. This is often caused by an anteriorly prominent acetabular component or insufficient cup anteversion.
Question 3013
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A patient presents with a painful popping sensation in the anterior knee 1 year after a posterior stabilized total knee arthroplasty. The pop occurs consistently as the knee moves from flexion to extension, typically around 30 to 40 degrees of flexion. What is the most appropriate initial surgical management?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arthroscopic debridement of the retropatellar nodule
Explanation
Patellar clunk syndrome occurs in posterior-stabilized TKAs when a fibrous nodule forms at the superior pole of the patella and catches in the femoral intercondylar notch. Arthroscopic excision of the nodule provides excellent and predictable relief of symptoms.
Question 3014
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
In an effort to optimize hip biomechanics during total hip arthroplasty, a surgeon plans to medialize the center of rotation of the acetabulum. Which of the following best describes the mechanical effect of this maneuver?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Decreases the body weight moment arm and decreases the joint reactive force
Explanation
Medializing the center of rotation of the acetabulum decreases the body weight moment arm. This reduces the amount of abductor force required to maintain a level pelvis, thereby decreasing the overall joint reactive force.
Question 3015
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 72-year-old male presents with acute thigh pain and inability to bear weight after a minor fall. Radiographs demonstrate a periprosthetic femur fracture around a cemented total hip arthroplasty stem. The fracture is located at the tip of the stem, the stem is radiographically loose, and there is good proximal femoral bone stock. Which classification and treatment are most appropriate?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Vancouver B2; revision to a long uncemented diaphyseal engaging stem
Explanation
This is a Vancouver B2 periprosthetic fracture, characterized by a fracture around or just below the stem, a loose prosthesis, and adequate bone stock. The standard of care is revision arthroplasty using a long, uncemented, diaphyseal-engaging stem.
Question 3016
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
During a total knee arthroplasty for a severe fixed valgus deformity, the surgeon proceeds with a lateral soft tissue release. According to the standard inside-out technique, which structure is typically released first after osteophytes are removed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Iliotibial band
Explanation
In correcting a fixed valgus deformity during TKA, after removing osteophytes, the iliotibial (IT) band is typically the first structure released. This is followed sequentially by the popliteus, posterolateral capsule, and lateral collateral ligament if necessary.
Question 3017
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A surgeon performs a lateral retinacular release during a total knee arthroplasty to improve patellar tracking. Which vessel is at greatest risk of injury during this procedure, potentially leading to patellar avascular necrosis?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Superior lateral genicular artery
Explanation
The superior lateral genicular artery is the primary blood supply to the patella and is at significant risk during a lateral retinacular release. Injury to this vessel can lead to patellar avascular necrosis, especially if the medial supply is compromised.
Question 3018
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A patient develops a foot drop and decreased sensation over the dorsum of the foot immediately following a primary total hip arthroplasty via a posterior approach. Which specific nerve division is most commonly injured in this scenario?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Peroneal division of the sciatic nerve
Explanation
Sciatic nerve injury during a posterior THA most frequently involves the peroneal (fibular) division because its fibers are more lateral and tightly tethered. This results in weakness of ankle dorsiflexion and altered dorsal foot sensation.
Question 3019
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A patient presents with a painful total knee arthroplasty 3 years postoperatively. Synovial fluid analysis reveals an elevated alpha-defensin level. What is the primary source of alpha-defensin in the setting of a periprosthetic joint infection?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Neutrophils
Explanation
Alpha-defensin is an antimicrobial peptide released primarily by neutrophils in response to infection. It serves as a highly sensitive and specific synovial fluid biomarker for diagnosing periprosthetic joint infections.
Question 3020
Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)
A 65-year-old female with a documented severe type IV hypersensitivity reaction to nickel requires a primary total knee arthroplasty. Which of the following femoral component materials is most appropriate to use in this patient?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Oxidized zirconium
Explanation
For patients with significant metal allergies, an oxidized zirconium or entirely titanium implant is preferred. Oxidized zirconium femoral components provide a durable articular surface with minimal release of allergenic metal ions.
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