Menu

Question 2961

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

Which patient or surgical factor is most strongly associated with squeaking in a ceramic-on-ceramic total hip arthroplasty?

. Retroverted acetabular component
. Edge loading due to steep cup abduction
. Short femoral neck offset
. Use of an un-cemented titanium stem
. High body mass index

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Edge loading due to steep cup abduction


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THAs is strongly associated with edge loading, which often results from component malpositioning such as increased cup abduction (a vertical cup) or excessive anteversion. Microseparation during the swing phase also contributes.

Question 2962

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 48-year-old active female with hip osteoarthritis desires a hip resurfacing arthroplasty. Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for early failure in this patient?

. Age under 50
. Female gender
. Body mass index of 24
. High physical activity level
. Absence of femoral head cysts

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Female gender


Explanation

Female gender and small femoral head size (typically less than 48 mm) are significant risk factors for early failure in hip resurfacing, predominantly due to femoral neck fractures and ALVAL. Many surgeons consider female gender a relative or absolute contraindication.

Question 2963

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old male presents with groin pain 6 years after a THA utilizing a large-diameter metal head on a standard titanium stem. Aspiration is negative for infection, but MRI shows a large cystic mass. What mechanism is most likely responsible?

. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the head-neck junction
. Polyethylene wear debris from the liner
. Third-body wear from retained acrylic cement
. Impingement of the femoral neck on the acetabular rim
. Aseptic loosening of the acetabular shell

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the head-neck junction


Explanation

Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (trunnionosis) at the modular head-neck junction is increasingly recognized, particularly with large metal heads. This leads to adverse local tissue reactions (ALTR) mimicking metal-on-metal disease despite using a polyethylene liner.

Question 2964

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a total knee arthroplasty, trial reduction reveals a tight extension gap and a loose flexion gap. Which of the following surgical maneuvers is the most appropriate next step to balance the knee?

. Recess the posterior cruciate ligament
. Upsize the femoral component
. Use a thicker polyethylene insert
. Resect more distal femur
. Translate the femoral component anteriorly

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Resect more distal femur


Explanation

Resecting more distal femur increases the extension gap without affecting the flexion gap. This will correct a tight extension gap while maintaining the current loose flexion gap, allowing for subsequent balancing with an appropriately sized polyethylene insert.

Question 2965

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 68-year-old patient with a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty presents with new-onset groin pain 6 years postoperatively. Radiographs show well-fixed components with no signs of osteolysis. Laboratory testing reveals elevated serum cobalt levels with normal serum chromium levels. What is the most likely cause of these findings?

. Acetabular cup aseptic loosening
. Femoral head-neck taper corrosion
. Polyethylene wear debris
. Periprosthetic joint infection
. Delayed metal hypersensitivity type IV

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Femoral head-neck taper corrosion


Explanation

Femoral head-neck taper corrosion (trunnionosis) typically presents with a disproportionately high serum cobalt level relative to chromium. In contrast, bearing surface wear in a metal-on-metal articulation usually presents with roughly equal or slightly higher chromium elevations.

Question 2966

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Understanding spino-pelvic mechanics is crucial for preventing instability after total hip arthroplasty. In a normal patient, transitioning from a standing to a seated position causes the pelvis to tilt posteriorly. How does this normal posterior pelvic tilt affect the orientation of the acetabulum?

. Anteverts and inclines
. Retroverts and inclines
. Retroverts and declines
. Anteverts and declines
. Remains rigidly fixed with no change in orientation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Anteverts and inclines


Explanation

During the transition from standing to sitting, the normal pelvis tilts posteriorly. This dynamic movement causes the acetabulum to both antevert and incline, providing clearance for the flexing femur and preventing anterior impingement.

Question 2967

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total hip arthroplasty utilizing the direct anterior approach (Hueter interval), the surgeon must routinely identify and ligate an ascending arterial branch traversing the surgical field to prevent excessive bleeding. This vessel is a branch of which of the following arteries?

. Medial femoral circumflex artery
. Lateral femoral circumflex artery
. Superior gluteal artery
. Inferior gluteal artery
. Obturator artery

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral femoral circumflex artery


Explanation

The ascending branch of the lateral femoral circumflex artery regularly crosses the internervous plane between the tensor fasciae latae and the sartorius. It must be identified and cauterized or ligated early in the direct anterior approach.

Question 2968

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During the femoral preparation of a total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon inadvertently places the femoral component in internal rotation relative to the transepicondylar axis. This error will most likely result in which of the following postoperative biomechanical issues?

. Lateral patellar tracking
. Medial patellar tracking
. A loose lateral flexion gap
. Increased valgus alignment in extension
. Patella baja

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Lateral patellar tracking


Explanation

Internal rotation of the femoral component medializes the trochlear groove, which effectively increases the Q-angle and leads to lateral patellar subluxation or tracking. It also creates a tight medial flexion gap.

Question 2969

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 70-year-old female presents with a painful catching sensation in her knee one year after undergoing a posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty. The catch occurs during active extension from a flexed position of approximately 40 degrees. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Patellar clunk syndrome
. Popliteus impingement
. Fabella syndrome
. Iliotibial band friction syndrome
. Arthrofibrosis

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Patellar clunk syndrome


Explanation

Patellar clunk syndrome occurs primarily in posterior-stabilized total knee designs. It is caused by the formation of a fibrous nodule at the superior pole of the patella that catches in the intercondylar box of the femur during active extension.

Question 2970

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 75-year-old female sustains a fall 8 years after an uncomplicated cementless total hip arthroplasty.

Radiographs demonstrate a fracture around the distal aspect of the stem. The stem demonstrates evidence of subsidence and loosening, but the proximal femoral bone stock remains adequate. Based on the Vancouver classification, what is the most appropriate definitive management?

. Open reduction and internal fixation with cables alone
. Open reduction and internal fixation with a locking plate
. Revision to a standard-length cemented stem
. Revision to a long, extensively porous-coated stem
. Proximal femoral replacement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a long, extensively porous-coated stem


Explanation

This describes a Vancouver B2 periprosthetic femur fracture, characterized by a fracture around a loose stem with adequate bone stock. The standard treatment is revision to a longer uncemented stem that bypasses the fracture by at least two cortical diameters.

Question 2971

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary total knee arthroplasty, the trial components are placed. The surgeon notes that the knee is tight in flexion but symmetrically balanced in extension. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to balance the knee?

. Resect additional distal femur
. Downsize the femoral component
. Release the posterior cruciate ligament
. Use a thinner tibial polyethylene insert
. Recut the proximal tibia

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the femoral component


Explanation

A tight flexion gap with a balanced extension gap is best managed by downsizing the femoral component or increasing the posterior tibial slope. Resecting more distal femur would inappropriately alter the already balanced extension gap.

Question 2972

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old female with a metal-on-polyethylene total hip arthroplasty presents with new-onset groin pain. Radiographs show well-fixed components. Laboratory evaluation reveals elevated serum cobalt levels and normal chromium levels. Inflammatory markers are normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Polyethylene wear osteolysis
. Mechanically loose acetabular cup
. Trunnionosis (taper corrosion)
. Low-grade periprosthetic joint infection
. Iliopsoas impingement

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Trunnionosis (taper corrosion)


Explanation

Elevated cobalt with normal chromium in the setting of a metal-on-polyethylene THA is highly characteristic of mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (trunnionosis) at the modular head-neck junction.

Question 2973

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)



A 72-year-old female sustains a periprosthetic femur fracture around a cemented total hip arthroplasty. Radiographs reveal a fracture around the tip of the stem with radiolucent lines indicating a loose stem, but adequate femoral bone stock remains. According to the Vancouver classification, what is the most appropriate surgical management?

. Open reduction internal fixation with cerclage cables only
. ORIF with a lateral locking plate and cables
. Revision to a fully porous-coated diaphyseal engaging stem
. Revision to a proximal femoral replacement (tumor prosthesis)
. Impaction bone grafting and a new cemented stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a fully porous-coated diaphyseal engaging stem


Explanation

This scenario describes a Vancouver B2 fracture (fracture around the stem, loose implant, good bone stock). The gold standard treatment is bypassing the fracture with a long, uncemented diaphyseal engaging revision stem.

Question 2974

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

Four weeks following a primary total knee arthroplasty, a patient presents with sudden onset knee pain, erythema, and swelling. Synovial fluid analysis reveals a WBC count of 65,000 cells/uL with 92% neutrophils. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial surgical treatment?

. Intravenous antibiotics for 6 weeks without surgery
. Arthroscopic irrigation and debridement
. Open debridement, polyethylene exchange, and implant retention (DAIR)
. Single-stage revision TKA
. Two-stage revision TKA with an articulating antibiotic spacer

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Open debridement, polyethylene exchange, and implant retention (DAIR)


Explanation

Acute periprosthetic joint infections occurring within 4 weeks of surgery or 3 weeks of hematogenous spread are best treated with open debridement, antibiotics, and implant retention (DAIR) along with a modular polyethylene exchange.

Question 2975

Topic: Total Knee Arthroplasty (TKA)

Following a primary TKA, the surgeon observes that the patella subluxates laterally during deep knee flexion. Which of the following component malpositions is the most likely technical cause?

. External rotation of the femoral component
. Internal rotation of the tibial component
. Lateral translation of the femoral component
. Lateral translation of the tibial tray
. Anterior placement of the femoral component

Correct Answer & Explanation

. External rotation of the femoral component


Explanation

Internal rotation of either the femoral or tibial components increases the Q-angle, which exacerbates lateral patellar maltracking. Correct external rotation of these components optimizes patellofemoral tracking.

Question 2976

Topic: Total Hip Arthroplasty (THA)

A 55-year-old active male with a ceramic-on-ceramic THA complains of an audible squeaking sound from his hip when walking. Which of the following is the most significant risk factor for this phenomenon?

. Patient body mass index < 25
. Excessive cup anteversion leading to edge loading
. Use of a titanium femoral stem
. Elevated serum cobalt levels
. A 28mm femoral head size

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Excessive cup anteversion leading to edge loading


Explanation

Squeaking in ceramic-on-ceramic THA is highly associated with edge loading, which often results from component malposition, such as a steeply abducted or excessively anteverted acetabular cup.

Question 2977

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

During a primary posterior-stabilized total knee arthroplasty, trial components demonstrate a balanced and stable extension gap, but the knee is excessively tight in flexion. Which of the following is the most appropriate corrective action?

. Downsize the anteroposterior dimension of the femoral component
. Resect additional distal femur
. Increase the size of the tibial polyethylene insert
. Release the posterior capsule
. Decrease the posterior slope of the tibial cut

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Downsize the anteroposterior dimension of the femoral component


Explanation

Downsizing the femoral component decreases the anteroposterior dimension, selectively loosening the flexion gap. It does not affect the extension gap, making it the ideal correction for a knee that is tight in flexion but balanced in extension.

Question 2978

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 65-year-old female presents with recurrent posterior dislocations following a primary total hip arthroplasty. Evaluation reveals a combined anteversion of 15 degrees. Which of the following is the primary mechanical cause of her instability?

. Abductor deficiency
. Impingement of the anterior neck on the anterior acetabular rim
. Impingement of the posterior neck on the posterior acetabular rim
. Polyethylene wear
. Leg length discrepancy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Impingement of the anterior neck on the anterior acetabular rim


Explanation

A combined anteversion of 15 degrees is abnormally low (retroverted). This leads to impingement of the anterior femoral neck against the anterior acetabular rim during flexion and internal rotation, levering the femoral head out posteriorly.

Question 2979

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 60-year-old male presents with right hip pain 5 years after a metal-on-polyethylene THA. Aspiration yields a sterile effusion with normal inflammatory markers but an elevated serum cobalt level. MRI reveals a solid pseudotumor. What is the most likely source of the metal debris?

. Abrasive wear of the polyethylene bearing
. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the head-neck junction
. Impingement of the femoral neck on the acetabular cup
. Galvanic corrosion at the stem-cement interface
. Fatigue failure of the femoral stem

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Mechanically assisted crevice corrosion at the head-neck junction


Explanation

In a metal-on-polyethylene THA with elevated cobalt and a pseudotumor, the source of metal ions is typically mechanically assisted crevice corrosion (trunnionosis) at the modular head-neck junction.

Question 2980

Topic: 3. Adult Reconstruction (Hip & Knee)

A 72-year-old patient sustains a periprosthetic femur fracture 10 years after a cementless THA. Radiographs show a fracture around the tip of the stem. The stem is radiographically loose, but the proximal bone stock is well preserved. According to the Vancouver classification, what is the most appropriate treatment?

. Open reduction internal fixation with cables and plates
. Revision to a standard length cementless stem
. Revision to a long, fully porous-coated diaphyseal engaging stem
. Proximal femoral replacement
. Cortical strut allografts alone

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Revision to a long, fully porous-coated diaphyseal engaging stem


Explanation

This is a Vancouver B2 fracture (fracture around the stem, loose stem, good proximal bone stock). The gold standard treatment is revision arthroplasty bypassing the fracture with a long diaphyseal-engaging stem.