Menu

Question 4361

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 60-year-old man presents with a massive, deep intramuscular mass in his proximal thigh. Biopsy reveals a well-differentiated liposarcoma. He undergoes marginal excision, but the tumor recurs rapidly 18 months later. Re-biopsy of the recurrence shows areas of high-grade, non-lipogenic sarcoma consistent with dedifferentiation. Molecular analysis of both the primary and recurrent tumor will show amplification of:

. t(12;16) fusing FUS-DDIT3
. MDM2 and CDK4
. EWSR1-FLI1
. SS18-SSX1
. GNAS

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(12;16) fusing FUS-DDIT3


Explanation

Well-differentiated liposarcoma (WDLPS) and dedifferentiated liposarcoma (DDLPS) are characterized cytogenetically by amplification of the 12q13-15 region, which leads to overexpression of the MDM2 and CDK4 genes. MDM2 is an E3 ubiquitin ligase that degrades the p53 tumor suppressor. A t(12;16) translocation (FUS-DDIT3) is the hallmark of myxoid liposarcoma, a completely different subtype of liposarcoma with distinct clinical and histologic features.

Question 4362

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old man presents with progressive pelvic pain. Radiographs reveal a large, expansile radiolucent lesion in the ilium with internal 'rings and arcs' calcifications. Biopsy demonstrates hypercellular hyaline cartilage with nuclear atypia and myxoid changes. Which of the following gene mutations is most frequently implicated in the pathogenesis of this tumor?

. GNAS
. IDH1
. EXT1
. USP6
. H3F3A

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS


Explanation

This patient has a conventional chondrosarcoma. Mutations in IDH1 and IDH2 are found in up to 50% of conventional central chondrosarcomas and enchondromas.

Question 4363

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 25-year-old man presents with a slow-growing, painful mass near his ankle joint. MRI shows a soft tissue mass adjacent to, but not communicating with, the joint space. Biopsy reveals a biphasic pattern consisting of epithelial elements forming gland-like structures and a spindle cell stroma. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is characteristic of this lesion?

. t(11;22)
. t(X;18)
. t(12;16)
. t(2;13)
. t(12;22)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)


Explanation

Synovial sarcoma is characterized by the t(X;18)(p11;q11) translocation, which results in the SYT-SSX fusion gene. Despite its name, it rarely arises from within the joint space.

Question 4364

Topic: Bone Tumors
A 10-year-old girl is evaluated for a limp and a leg-length discrepancy. Radiographs show a 'shepherd's crook' deformity of the proximal femur with 'ground-glass' opacities. Physical exam reveals large, irregular café-au-lait macules. What is the underlying molecular mechanism of her condition?
. Constitutive activation of adenylyl cyclase due to a GNAS missense mutation
. Loss of function of the tumor suppressor gene EXT1
. Overexpression of RANKL leading to excessive osteoclastogenesis
. Defect in type I collagen synthesis due to COL1A1 mutation
. Translocation resulting in the USP6 fusion oncogene

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Constitutive activation of adenylyl cyclase due to a GNAS missense mutation


Explanation

McCune-Albright syndrome consists of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café-au-lait spots, and endocrinopathies. It is caused by an activating missense mutation in the GNAS gene, leading to excessive cAMP production.

Question 4365

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 16-year-old girl complains of localized pain in her proximal humerus. Radiographs show an eccentric, expansile, lytic metaphyseal lesion with cortical thinning. MRI reveals multiple fluid-fluid levels. Biopsy shows blood-filled cystic spaces lacking an endothelial lining. Which of the following genetic alterations is diagnostic for the primary form of this lesion?

. USP6 gene rearrangement
. RUNX2 amplification
. CSF1 translocation
. NF2 deletion
. RB1 loss of heterozygosity

Correct Answer & Explanation

. USP6 gene rearrangement


Explanation

Primary aneurysmal bone cysts (ABCs) are neoplastic and driven by translocations involving the USP6 gene on chromosome 17. Secondary ABCs lack this mutation.

Question 4366

Topic: Soft Tissue Tumors & Metastasis

A 45-year-old man has a large, painless mass deep in his posterior thigh. Histologic examination reveals uniform, small, round to oval cells, scattered lipoblasts, and a prominent arborizing capillary network described as 'chicken wire' vasculature in a myxoid background. Which translocation is diagnostic?

. t(12;16)
. t(11;22)
. t(X;18)
. t(9;22)
. t(2;13)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(12;16)


Explanation

Myxoid liposarcoma is characterized by the t(12;16) translocation creating the FUS-DDIT3 fusion protein. The 'chicken wire' capillary network is a classic histological hallmark.

Question 4367

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy presents with knee pain. Radiographs show a well-defined lytic lesion in the epiphysis of the proximal tibia with a sclerotic rim. Biopsy reveals mononuclear cells with longitudinal nuclear grooves and 'chicken wire' calcifications. Which of the following gene mutations is highly specific for this tumor?

. H3F3B
. H3F3A
. IDH2
. GNAS
. BRAF

Correct Answer & Explanation

. H3F3B


Explanation

Chondroblastoma typically occurs in the epiphysis of skeletally immature patients and is characterized by mutations in the H3F3B gene. Giant cell tumors, in contrast, typically harbor H3F3A mutations.

Question 4368

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 30-year-old woman presents with a slow-growing nodule attached to her Achilles tendon. The tumor consists of nests of uniform spindle cells with clear cytoplasm separated by dense fibrous septa. Immunohistochemistry is positive for HMB-45 and S-100. What is the associated cytogenetic abnormality?

. t(12;22) EWS-ATF1
. t(X;18) SYT-SSX
. t(11;22) EWS-FLI1
. t(12;16) FUS-DDIT3
. t(9;22) EWS-CHN

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(12;22) EWS-ATF1


Explanation

Clear cell sarcoma (malignant melanoma of soft parts) presents in tendons/aponeuroses and shares melanocytic markers (S-100, HMB-45) with melanoma. It is distinguished by the t(12;22) translocation.

Question 4369

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 35-year-old woman reports recurrent knee swelling without trauma. Joint aspiration yields brownish fluid. MRI reveals a thickened synovium with hypointense nodules on T2-weighted imaging showing 'blooming' artifact. The pathogenesis of this condition is driven by a translocation leading to the overexpression of which factor?

. RANKL
. CSF1
. VEGF
. FGF23
. PDGF

Correct Answer & Explanation

. RANKL


Explanation

Tenosynovial giant cell tumor (formerly PVNS) is driven by a t(1;2) translocation causing overexpression of colony-stimulating factor 1 (CSF1). This recruits non-neoplastic inflammatory cells that form the bulk of the tumor.

Question 4370

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 60-year-old man presents with insidious onset of sacral pain and recent bowel/bladder incontinence. Imaging reveals a destructive midline sacral mass. Biopsy shows large cells with copious bubbly cytoplasm in a myxoid stroma. Which immunohistochemical marker is highly specific for the presumed diagnosis?

. Cytokeratin
. S-100
. Brachyury
. EMA
. Vimentin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cytokeratin


Explanation

Chordoma arises from notochordal remnants and classically presents in the sacrum or clivus with physaliferous ('bubbly') cells. Brachyury is a highly specific nuclear transcription factor marker for notochordal differentiation.

Question 4371

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 20-year-old man presents with an aching back pain that is poorly relieved by NSAIDs. Imaging reveals a 3.5 cm lytic lesion with a sclerotic rim in the posterior elements of L3. Histology shows irregular osteoid trabeculae lined by plump osteoblasts in a highly vascular stroma. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteoid osteoma
. Osteoblastoma
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Chondroblastoma
. Giant cell tumor

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteoblastoma


Explanation

Osteoblastoma is histologically identical to osteoid osteoma but is distinguished by a size greater than 2 cm, progressive pain less responsive to NSAIDs, and a higher propensity for progressive growth.

Question 4372

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old boy presents with a rapidly growing mass deep in his forearm. Histology demonstrates malignant small round blue cells arranged in nests separated by fibrous septa, forming cleft-like spaces. Molecular testing confirms the presence of which of the following genetic fusions?

. PAX3-FOXO1
. EWS-FLI1
. SYT-SSX
. FUS-DDIT3
. MYC amplification

Correct Answer & Explanation

. PAX3-FOXO1


Explanation

Alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma frequently involves the extremities in adolescents and is characterized by the t(2;13) translocation, resulting in the PAX3-FOXO1 fusion gene. It is highly aggressive.

Question 4373

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 65-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer treated with local radiation 15 years ago presents with severe shoulder pain. Radiographs show a destructive, permeative lytic lesion in the proximal humerus with an aggressive periosteal reaction. Biopsy confirms a secondary bone sarcoma. What is the most common histologic subtype in this setting?

. Low-grade central
. Parosteal
. High-grade conventional osteosarcoma
. Telangiectatic
. Small cell

Correct Answer & Explanation

. High-grade conventional osteosarcoma


Explanation

Radiation-induced secondary osteosarcomas are almost exclusively high-grade conventional osteosarcomas (often osteoblastic or fibroblastic). They carry a very poor prognosis compared to primary osteosarcomas.

Question 4374

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 25-year-old man presents with jaw pain. Imaging reveals a well-defined lytic lesion in the mandible. Histology shows abundant interlacing collagen fibers and bland spindle cells, identical to a soft-tissue desmoid tumor. It is locally aggressive. What is the diagnosis?

. Nodular fasciitis
. Desmoplastic fibroma
. Fibrosarcoma
. Non-ossifying fibroma
. Myxoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Desmoplastic fibroma


Explanation

Desmoplastic fibroma is a rare primary bone tumor considered the intraosseous counterpart to soft tissue desmoid fibromatosis. It features bland spindle cells and abundant collagen, and has a high local recurrence rate.

Question 4375

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 30-year-old woman presents with a painless, hard mass behind her knee. Radiographs reveal a heavily ossified, lobulated mass attached to the posterior cortex of the distal femur by a broad base, with a visible radiolucent cleft (string sign). Which molecular hallmark is diagnostic of this condition?

. MDM2 and CDK4 amplification
. RB1 deletion
. TP53 mutation
. H3F3A mutation
. IDH1 mutation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MDM2 and CDK4 amplification


Explanation

Parosteal osteosarcoma is a low-grade surface osteosarcoma characterized by amplification of the MDM2 and CDK4 genes on chromosome 12q13-15. The 'string sign' represents a cleavage plane between the tumor and the underlying cortex.

Question 4376

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy presents with knee pain. Radiographs show an eccentric epiphyseal lytic lesion in the proximal tibia with a sclerotic margin. Biopsy shows polyhedral mononuclear cells with grooved nuclei and scattered multinucleated giant cells with fine chicken-wire calcifications. Which of the following mutations is most characteristic of this lesion?

. H3F3A G34W
. H3F3B K36M
. USP6 gene rearrangement
. GNAS R201C
. IDH1 R132H

Correct Answer & Explanation

. H3F3B K36M


Explanation

The clinical and histological description is classic for a chondroblastoma. These tumors are driven by a specific H3F3B (K36M) mutation, which reliably differentiates them from giant cell tumors of bone that harbor H3F3A (G34W) mutations.

Question 4377

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 35-year-old woman presents with a slow-growing mass on the posterior aspect of her distal femur. Radiographs reveal a heavily ossified, broad-based mass attached to the cortex with a radiolucent cleft between the mass and bone. Histology shows well-differentiated bone trabeculae and a low-grade fibroblastic stroma. Which of the following genetic alterations is most specific for this diagnosis?

. Amplification of MDM2 and CDK4
. Translocation t(11;22)
. Translocation t(X;18)
. Deletion of the RB1 gene
. Overexpression of CSF1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Amplification of MDM2 and CDK4


Explanation

This is a parosteal osteosarcoma, a low-grade surface malignancy. It is cytogenetically characterized by supernumerary ring chromosomes leading to the amplification of MDM2 and CDK4 genes on chromosome 12.

Question 4378

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 25-year-old man presents with a painful swelling in his right foot. MRI shows a soft tissue mass with high signal on T2. Biopsy reveals spindle cells and epithelial cells forming glandular structures. The tumor is positive for cytokeratin, EMA, and TLE1. Which of the following translocations is diagnostic?

. t(12;16)
. t(2;13)
. t(X;18)
. t(11;22)
. t(12;22)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(X;18)


Explanation

The diagnosis is a biphasic synovial sarcoma, which frequently arises in the extremities of young adults. It is driven by the t(X;18)(p11;q11) translocation, resulting in the SYT-SSX fusion gene.

Question 4379

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 10-year-old girl is evaluated for precocious puberty, irregular cafe-au-lait spots, and multiple lytic bone lesions exhibiting a ground-glass appearance. Biopsy of a bone lesion shows curvilinear woven bone lacking osteoblastic rimming. The pathogenesis of this syndrome involves a mutation in a gene encoding which of the following?

. Tyrosine kinase receptor
. G-protein alpha stimulatory subunit
. Tumor suppressor p53
. Wnt/beta-catenin pathway protein
. RANK ligand

Correct Answer & Explanation

. G-protein alpha stimulatory subunit


Explanation

McCune-Albright syndrome consists of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, cafe-au-lait spots, and endocrinopathies. It is caused by a post-zygotic activating mutation in the GNAS gene, which encodes the stimulatory alpha subunit of G-proteins.

Question 4380

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 40-year-old man presents with a locally aggressive soft tissue mass in the deep tissues of his thigh. Biopsy shows a biphasic population of osteoclast-like giant cells and mononuclear cells, with abundant hemosiderin deposition. Cytogenetic analysis identifies a t(1;2)(p13;q37) translocation. The targeted therapy for severe, unresectable cases typically inhibits which of the following?

. RANKL
. mTOR
. VEGF
. CSF1R
. PD-1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CSF1R


Explanation

Tenosynovial giant cell tumor (pigmented villonodular synovitis) features a t(1;2) translocation causing CSF1 overexpression. Pexidartinib, a targeted CSF1R inhibitor, is approved for advanced, symptomatic cases.