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Question 4341

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 19-year-old male complains of severe, aching pain in his right proximal tibia that is worse at night and dramatically relieved by NSAIDs. Imaging shows a 1 cm radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense sclerotic bone. What is the most appropriate definitive management if medical therapy fails?

. Wide en bloc resection
. Chemotherapy followed by curettage
. Percutaneous radiofrequency ablation
. External beam radiation
. Intralesional steroid injection

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Wide en bloc resection


Explanation

The clinical presentation is classic for an osteoid osteoma. If medical management with NSAIDs fails or is poorly tolerated, percutaneous radiofrequency ablation is the gold standard definitive treatment due to its high success rate and low morbidity.

Question 4342

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old presents with knee pain. Radiographs reveal a mixed lytic and sclerotic lesion in the distal femur with an associated Codman triangle. Prior to definitive surgical resection, what is the most critical orthopedic purpose of obtaining a whole-bone MRI of the affected femur?

. Determine the specific histologic subtype of the tumor
. Assess for early pulmonary metastases
. Identify potential skip metastases within the same medullary canal
. Evaluate the integrity of the collateral ligaments
. Differentiate between osteosarcoma and Ewing sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Determine the specific histologic subtype of the tumor


Explanation

Whole-bone MRI is mandatory in the staging of primary bone sarcomas to identify skip lesions within the same long bone. The presence of a skip metastasis directly alters the required level of surgical resection or amputation.

Question 4343

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 40-year-old female complains of severe, pinpoint pain in her long finger that worsens significantly upon exposure to cold water. Physical examination reveals exquisite point tenderness beneath the nail plate. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Enchondroma
. Mucoid cyst
. Glomus tumor
. Schwannoma
. Epidermal inclusion cyst

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Enchondroma


Explanation

A glomus tumor classically presents with the triad of severe pinpoint pain, cold hypersensitivity, and subungual point tenderness. It is a benign hamartoma originating from the neuromyoarterial glomus body.

Question 4344

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 15-year-old boy presents with knee pain and a mass in the distal femur. A biopsy reveals malignant mesenchymal cells producing osteoid. The patient's family history is significant for a sister who developed breast cancer at age 28 and a mother who died of an adrenocortical carcinoma. Which of the following gene mutations is most likely associated with this patient's underlying syndrome?

. EXT1
. TP53
. RB1
. GNAS
. RECQL4

Correct Answer & Explanation

. TP53


Explanation

The patient's presentation and family history are classic for Li-Fraumeni syndrome, an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a germline mutation in the TP53 tumor suppressor gene. Patients are at high risk for osteosarcoma, breast cancer, leukemia, brain tumors, and adrenocortical carcinoma. EXT1 is associated with multiple hereditary exostoses. RB1 is associated with hereditary retinoblastoma (also high risk for osteosarcoma, but different family history). GNAS is associated with fibrous dysplasia/McCune-Albright syndrome. RECQL4 is associated with Rothmund-Thomson syndrome.

Question 4345

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 12-year-old boy presents with a painful, swollen thigh. Radiographs demonstrate a diaphyseal permeative lytic lesion with a periosteal 'onion skin' reaction. Biopsy reveals uniform small round blue cells expressing CD99. Which of the following is the most common cytogenetic abnormality associated with this tumor?

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(9;22)(q22;q12)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(11;22)(q24;q12)


Explanation

Ewing sarcoma is characterized by the t(11;22)(q24;q12) translocation, which fuses the EWSR1 gene on chromosome 22 with the FLI1 gene on chromosome 11. t(X;18) is seen in synovial sarcoma. t(12;16) is seen in myxoid liposarcoma. t(2;13) is seen in alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma. t(9;22)(q22;q12) is seen in extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma (EWSR1-NR4A3) or a variant of Ewing sarcoma (EWSR1-ERG, t(21;22)).

Question 4346

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old man presents with a large, painful mass in his pelvis. Biopsy shows a cartilaginous tumor with hypercellularity, pleomorphism, and binucleated cells. Foci of the tumor show abrupt transition to a high-grade, non-cartilaginous spindle cell sarcoma. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Clear cell chondrosarcoma
. Mesenchymal chondrosarcoma
. Dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma
. Myxoid chondrosarcoma
. Osteosarcoma with chondroblastic features

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Clear cell chondrosarcoma


Explanation

Dedifferentiated chondrosarcoma is characterized by a low-grade cartilaginous tumor (usually enchondroma or low-grade chondrosarcoma) that undergoes an abrupt histologic transition to a high-grade, non-cartilaginous sarcoma (such as osteosarcoma, fibrosarcoma, or undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma). It has a very poor prognosis. Mesenchymal chondrosarcoma features a biphasic pattern of small round blue cells and islands of well-differentiated cartilage.

Question 4347

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 14-year-old girl sustains a minor fall and complains of persistent arm pain. Radiographs show an expansile, multiloculated, radiolucent lesion in the metaphysis of the humerus. MRI demonstrates multiple fluid-fluid levels. Genetic analysis of the biopsy tissue is most likely to reveal a rearrangement involving which of the following genes?

. GNAS
. USP6
. IDH1
. EXT1
. BRAF

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS


Explanation

Primary Aneurysmal Bone Cysts (ABCs) are now recognized as true neoplasms driven by translocations involving the USP6 gene on chromosome 17p13. The most common translocation is t(16;17)(q22;p13), fusing CDH11 to USP6. GNAS is mutated in fibrous dysplasia. IDH1/2 are mutated in enchondromas and chondrosarcomas. EXT1/EXT2 are mutated in osteochondromas. BRAF mutations are seen in Langerhans cell histiocytosis and non-ossifying fibromas.

Question 4348

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 25-year-old man presents with a long history of anterior tibial bowing and pain. Radiographs show a multiloculated, 'soap bubble' radiolucent lesion in the anterior diaphyseal cortex of the tibia. Biopsy reveals a biphasic tumor with both epithelial and osteofibrous components. Immunohistochemistry will be strongly positive for which of the following?

. S-100
. Cytokeratin
. CD34
. Brachyury
. Desmin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. S-100


Explanation

The clinical scenario describes an adamantinoma, a rare low-grade malignant bone tumor that almost exclusively occurs in the anterior diaphyseal cortex of the tibia. It has a biphasic histologic pattern containing both epithelial cells and a fibrous stroma. The epithelial cells will stain positive for epithelial markers such as cytokeratins (e.g., AE1/AE3). Osteofibrous dysplasia can resemble adamantinoma clinically and radiographically but generally lacks the prominent epithelial islands (though it can have scattered cytokeratin-positive cells).

Question 4349

Topic: Bone Tumors
A 9-year-old girl presents with a limp and a discrepancy in leg length. Radiographs demonstrate a 'ground-glass' appearance in the proximal femur with a 'shepherd's crook' deformity. She is also noted to have large, irregular hyperpigmented macules on her trunk. Which endocrine abnormality is most commonly associated with this patient's condition?
. Precocious puberty
. Hyperparathyroidism
. Hypothyroidism
. Adrenal insufficiency
. Diabetes insipidus

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Precocious puberty


Explanation

The patient has McCune-Albright syndrome, which is characterized by the triad of polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café-au-lait spots (with irregular 'coast of Maine' borders), and endocrine hyperfunction. The most common endocrinopathy is precocious puberty, although hyperthyroidism, growth hormone excess, and Cushing syndrome can also occur. The syndrome is caused by a post-zygotic activating mutation in the GNAS gene, leading to mosaicism.

Question 4350

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 40-year-old woman is incidentally found to have a well-circumscribed, lobulated, cartilaginous lesion in the proximal humerus with punctate calcifications. There is no endosteal scalloping or cortical breakthrough. Molecular testing of such lesions frequently demonstrates mutations in which of the following enzymes?

. Succinate dehydrogenase
. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
. Malate dehydrogenase
. Fumarate hydratase
. Cytochrome c oxidase

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Succinate dehydrogenase


Explanation

Somatic mutations in the isocitrate dehydrogenase 1 or 2 (IDH1 or IDH2) genes are found in the majority of solitary enchondromas and central chondrosarcomas. These mutations lead to the production of an oncometabolite, 2-hydroxyglutarate (2-HG), which alters DNA methylation and promotes tumorigenesis. Multiple enchondromatosis (Ollier disease and Maffucci syndrome) is also associated with IDH1/2 mutations.

Question 4351

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 60-year-old man presents with chronic low back pain and new-onset bowel incontinence. MRI shows a large, destructive midline mass involving the sacrum. Biopsy reveals lobules of physaliferous cells with a myxoid stroma. Which of the following immunohistochemical markers is most specific for this diagnosis?

. Cytokeratin
. EMA
. S-100
. Brachyury
. CD99

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cytokeratin


Explanation

Chordoma is a rare, locally aggressive tumor arising from remnants of the embryonic notochord, most commonly occurring in the sacrococcygeal region or spheno-occipital (clivus) region. Histologically, it is characterized by large, vacuolated cells known as physaliferous cells. While chordomas stain positive for cytokeratin, EMA, and S-100, the nuclear transcription factor brachyury is highly specific for notochordal differentiation and is the hallmark diagnostic marker for chordoma.

Question 4352

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old woman presents with a slow-growing, painful mass near her knee joint. MRI shows a heterogeneous soft tissue mass adjacent to, but not within, the knee joint capsule, with calcifications. Core biopsy shows a biphasic tumor with spindle cells and glandular-like epithelial elements. Cytogenetic evaluation is most likely to show which translocation?

. t(X;18)(p11;q11)
. t(12;16)(q13;p11)
. t(2;13)(q35;q14)
. t(11;22)(q24;q12)
. t(12;22)(q13;q12)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(X;18)(p11;q11)


Explanation

Synovial sarcoma is characterized by the t(X;18)(p11;q11) translocation, which results in the fusion of the SS18 (formerly SYT) gene on chromosome 18 with one of the SSX genes (SSX1, SSX2, or SSX4) on the X chromosome. Despite its name, it rarely arises within a joint cavity, typically presenting in periarticular soft tissues. It can be biphasic (spindle and epithelial cells) or monophasic (spindle cells only).

Question 4353

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 19-year-old male presents with severe nocturnal pain in his right thigh that is dramatically relieved by ibuprofen. Radiographs show a small radiolucent nidus surrounded by dense reactive sclerosis in the femoral diaphysis. The profound pain relief provided by NSAIDs is primarily due to the high local production of which of the following?

. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a)
. Prostaglandin E2 (PGE2)
. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
. Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
. Substance P

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-a)


Explanation

Osteoid osteoma is a benign bone-forming tumor characterized by a central nidus (<1.5 cm) surrounded by reactive sclerosis. The tumor cells produce exceptionally high levels of prostaglandins, particularly PGE2, largely due to strong expression of cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2). This high PGE2 concentration mediates the intense, nocturnal pain, which explains the characteristic dramatic response to NSAIDs (which inhibit COX enzymes).

Question 4354

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 35-year-old man undergoes arthroscopy for chronic knee swelling and locking. The synovium is diffusely hypertrophic and reddish-brown. Histology shows mononuclear cells, multinucleated giant cells, and prominent hemosiderin deposition. The pathogenesis of this condition is primarily driven by an overexpression of which of the following?

. RANKL
. CSF1
. FGF23
. PDGF
. TGF-beta

Correct Answer & Explanation

. RANKL


Explanation

Pigmented Villonodular Synovitis (PVNS), now classified as Tenosynovial Giant Cell Tumor (TGCT), is a neoplastic process driven by a specific genetic alteration in a minority of the cells. The neoplastic mononuclear cells have a translocation involving the Colony Stimulating Factor 1 (CSF1) gene, leading to its overexpression. The excess CSF1 acts in a paracrine manner to recruit a massive influx of non-neoplastic macrophages and multinucleated giant cells, which make up the bulk of the tumor. Drugs blocking the CSF1 receptor (e.g., pexidartinib) are effective treatments for extensive disease.

Question 4355

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 6-year-old boy presents with skull pain and a soft tissue mass over his parietal bone. Radiographs show a 'punched-out' lytic lesion with no sclerotic rim. Biopsy reveals sheets of mononuclear cells with grooved, 'coffee-bean' nuclei admixed with eosinophils. These cells will characteristically test positive for S-100, CD1a, and which other immunohistochemical marker?

. CD68
. CD34
. Langerin (CD207)
. Vimentin
. Desmin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CD68


Explanation

Langerhans Cell Histiocytosis (LCH) features a proliferation of abnormal Langerhans cells. Histologically, these cells have pale, grooved nuclei (coffee-bean shape) and are often accompanied by an eosinophilic infiltrate. The classic immunophenotype for LCH cells includes positivity for S-100, CD1a, and Langerin (CD207). Electron microscopy historically showed Birbeck granules (tennis racket-shaped organelles), the formation of which is mediated by Langerin. Activating mutations in BRAF (most commonly V600E) are found in >50% of LCH cases.

Question 4356

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 65-year-old man presents with diffuse back pain, fatigue, and recent weight loss. Laboratory studies show anemia and hypercalcemia. Radiographs demonstrate multiple 'punched-out' lytic lesions in the skull and vertebrae. Bone marrow biopsy is likely to show a proliferation of neoplastic cells that express which of the following surface markers?

. CD138
. CD20
. CD3
. CD30
. CD15

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CD138


Explanation

The clinical picture is classic for multiple myeloma, a plasma cell dyscrasia characterized by CRAB symptoms (hyperCalcemia, Renal involvement, Anemia, Bone lytic lesions). Neoplastic plasma cells typically lose early B-cell markers like CD20 and strongly express plasma cell markers such as CD138 (syndecan-1) and CD38.

Question 4357

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 30-year-old man presents with a slowly enlarging, painful mass bound to the Achilles tendon. Biopsy reveals nests of pale, spindled to epithelioid cells. The cells are strongly positive for S-100, HMB-45, and Melan-A. Molecular testing reveals a t(12;22)(q13;q12) translocation. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

. Malignant melanoma
. Clear cell sarcoma of soft parts
. Synovial sarcoma
. Epithelioid sarcoma
. Alveolar soft part sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Malignant melanoma


Explanation

Clear cell sarcoma of soft parts is often called 'melanoma of soft parts' because it shares immunophenotypic features with melanoma, strongly expressing neural crest/melanocytic markers (S-100, HMB-45, Melan-A). However, unlike conventional melanoma, clear cell sarcoma is defined by the specific translocation t(12;22)(q13;q12), which fuses the EWSR1 gene to the ATF1 gene. It typically arises in deep soft tissues, often associated with tendons or aponeuroses of the lower extremities.

Question 4358

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old woman presents with a slow-growing, painless mass on the posterior aspect of her distal femur. Radiographs reveal a heavily ossified, lobulated mass attached to the posterior cortex by a broad base, with a 'string sign' visible between the tumor and the underlying bone. Histology shows low-grade spindle cells between well-formed trabeculae of woven bone. This tumor is characterized by the amplification of which gene?

. MYC
. MDM2
. HER2
. RET
. ALK

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MYC


Explanation

Parosteal osteosarcoma is a low-grade, surface-based osteosarcoma that most commonly occurs on the posterior aspect of the distal femur. Radiographically, it is heavily ossified and may show a radiolucent cleft (string sign) separating it from the underlying cortex. Cytogenetically, parosteal osteosarcomas are characterized by supernumerary ring chromosomes containing amplifications of the 12q13-15 region, which includes the MDM2 and CDK4 genes. MDM2 inhibits p53. (This same amplification is seen in well-differentiated/dedifferentiated liposarcomas).

Question 4359

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology
A 12-year-old boy has a radiograph of his knee following a minor twisting injury, which incidentally reveals an eccentric, radiolucent, multi-loculated lesion with a sclerotic margin in the distal femoral metaphysis. Biopsy would typically reveal spindle cells in a storiform pattern admixed with multinucleated giant cells and clusters of lipid-laden macrophages. Which of the following pathways is often mutated in these lesions?
. Wnt/beta-catenin pathway
. MAPK/ERK pathway
. PI3K/AKT pathway
. Hedgehog pathway
. Notch pathway

Correct Answer & Explanation

. MAPK/ERK pathway


Explanation

Non-ossifying fibroma (NOF) is a common benign fibrohistiocytic bone lesion of childhood, typically presenting as an incidental eccentric, sclerotic-rimmed radiolucency. Histologically, they consist of spindle cells in a storiform pattern, giant cells, and foam cells. Recent molecular studies have shown that NOFs frequently harbor activating somatic mutations in the MAPK/ERK pathway, most notably in the KRAS, FGFR1, or BRAF genes. Jaffe-Campanacci syndrome involves multiple NOFs, café-au-lait spots, and is linked to the MAPK pathway.

Question 4360

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 16-year-old boy presents with right knee pain. Radiographs reveal a well-defined, 2 cm lytic lesion within the epiphysis of the proximal tibia with a thin sclerotic rim. Biopsy demonstrates mononuclear cells with 'chicken-wire' calcifications. Immunohistochemistry of this tumor frequently shows positivity for which of the following?

. CD34
. Cytokeratin
. S-100 protein
. Desmin
. Myogenin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CD34


Explanation

Chondroblastoma is a rare benign cartilaginous bone tumor that characteristically arises in the epiphysis or apophysis of long bones in skeletally immature patients. Histology shows sheets of uniform, round to polygonal mononuclear cells (chondroblasts), multinucleated giant cells, and a classic pericellular 'chicken-wire' pattern of calcification. Because they are of cartilaginous origin, chondroblasts are typically S-100 positive. They are also characterized by H3F3B (histone H3.3) gene mutations.