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Question 4381

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 28-year-old man presents with an expansile, multiloculated radiolucent lesion in the metaphysis of his proximal tibia. MRI demonstrates multiple fluid-fluid levels. Biopsy reveals blood-filled spaces separated by fibrous septa containing reactive woven bone and osteoclast-like giant cells. A gene rearrangement involving which of the following loci is pathognomonic for this primary lesion?

. 17p13 (p53)
. 16q22 (CBFB)
. 17p13 (USP6)
. 22q12 (EWSR1)
. 11q13 (CCND1)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. 17p13 (USP6)


Explanation

Primary aneurysmal bone cysts (ABCs) are neoplastic processes characterized by USP6 gene rearrangements on chromosome 17p13. This helps distinguish primary ABCs from secondary ABCs arising in other tumors.

Question 4382

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 65-year-old man presents with severe back pain and a destructive sacral mass. Biopsy reveals cords of large, vacuolated physaliferous cells in a myxoid stroma. The tumor cells are strongly positive for cytokeratin and S-100. Expression of which of the following immunohistochemical markers is most specific for confirming this diagnosis?

. Brachyury
. CD99
. SATB2
. Smooth muscle actin (SMA)
. MUC4

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Brachyury


Explanation

Chordomas arise from notochord remnants and typically occur in the sacrum or clivus. Brachyury is a nuclear transcription factor critical for notochord development and serves as the most sensitive and specific marker for chordoma.

Question 4383

Topic: Bone Tumors
An 8-year-old girl presents with a limp and shortening of the left leg. Radiographs reveal multiple expansive, purely lytic lesions with a 'ground-glass' appearance in her left femur and tibia. Physical exam notes large, irregular café-au-lait macules with 'coast of Maine' borders, and she has signs of precocious puberty. Which of the following gene mutations is responsible for this condition?
. GNAS
. EXT1
. SQSTM1
. USP6
. TP53

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS


Explanation

McCune-Albright syndrome is characterized by polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, café-au-lait macules, and endocrinopathies like precocious puberty. It is caused by an early postzygotic, activating mutation in the GNAS gene, leading to increased intracellular cAMP.

Question 4384

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 25-year-old male presents with a slowly enlarging mass on the plantar aspect of his foot. A biopsy reveals a biphasic tumor consisting of both spindle cells and epithelial cells forming gland-like structures. Which of the following chromosomal translocations is considered the pathognomonic driver for this tumor?

. t(X;18)
. t(11;22)
. t(12;16)
. t(2;13)
. t(9;22)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(X;18)


Explanation

Synovial sarcoma classically presents as a slow-growing mass in the extremities of young adults and can exhibit a biphasic or monophasic histologic pattern. It is uniquely driven by the t(X;18) translocation, resulting in the SYT-SSX fusion protein.

Question 4385

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old boy complains of worsening left knee pain over 3 months. Radiographs demonstrate a 2 cm eccentric, well-circumscribed, lytic epiphyseal lesion with thin sclerotic margins in the proximal tibia. Histology shows mononuclear cells with grooved (coffee bean) nuclei and areas of fine, pericellular "chicken-wire" calcification. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Osteosarcoma
. Giant cell tumor of bone
. Chondroblastoma
. Clear cell chondrosarcoma
. Ewing sarcoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Osteosarcoma


Explanation

Chondroblastoma is a rare, benign cartilage-producing tumor that typically arises in the epiphyses of skeletally immature patients. The histological hallmarks are chondroblasts with grooved nuclei and "chicken-wire" calcifications.

Question 4386

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 16-year-old girl presents with a rapidly expanding, painful lesion in her distal femur. MRI reveals multiple fluid-fluid levels within an expansile cavity. Biopsy demonstrates blood-filled cavernous spaces lacking an endothelial lining, surrounded by septa containing fibroblasts and multinucleated giant cells. Primary lesions of this type are uniquely associated with a rearrangement of which gene?

. USP6
. TP53
. RB1
. EXT2
. GNAS

Correct Answer & Explanation

. USP6


Explanation

Primary aneurysmal bone cysts (ABCs) are genuine neoplasms driven by rearrangements of the USP6 gene (most commonly t(16;17)). Identifying this mutation helps distinguish primary ABCs from secondary ABC-like changes in other tumors.

Question 4387

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old male presents with chronic lower back pain and new-onset bowel and bladder incontinence. Imaging reveals a large, destructive, midline sacral mass. Core needle biopsy shows a lobulated architecture with large cells containing highly vacuolated cytoplasm in a myxoid stroma. Which immunohistochemical marker is highly sensitive and specific for the suspected diagnosis?

. Cytokeratin
. Brachyury
. CD99
. S-100
. Smooth muscle actin (SMA)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Cytokeratin


Explanation

The patient has a chordoma, a malignant bone tumor arising from notochordal remnants, characterized by physaliferous (bubbly) cells. Brachyury is a crucial transcription factor for notochord development and serves as a highly specific diagnostic marker for chordoma.

Question 4388

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 60-year-old male with a history of hematuria presents with severe arm pain.

Radiographs show a large, destructive lytic lesion in the humeral diaphysis. A diagnosis of metastatic renal cell carcinoma is confirmed, and prophylactic internal fixation is planned. What is the most critical step prior to proceeding with surgical stabilization?

. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy
. Preoperative angiographic embolization
. Primary external beam radiation therapy
. Initiation of intravenous bisphosphonates
. Diagnostic open biopsy

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy


Explanation

Renal cell carcinoma and thyroid carcinoma metastases are notoriously hypervascular. Preoperative angiographic embolization is essential to minimize the risk of massive, life-threatening intraoperative hemorrhage during stabilization.

Question 4389

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 30-year-old male presents with a painful anterior shin.

Radiographs reveal a multicentric, eccentric "soap bubble" lytic lesion in the anterior tibial diaphysis. Biopsy demonstrates a biphasic tumor with nests of cytokeratin-positive epithelial cells intermixed within a bland fibrous stroma. What is the recommended definitive management?

. Intralesional curettage and bone grafting
. Wide surgical resection
. Primary radiation therapy
. Chemotherapy followed by intralesional curettage
. Below-knee amputation

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Intralesional curettage and bone grafting


Explanation

Adamantinoma is a low-grade malignant bone tumor that almost exclusively occurs in the anterior tibial diaphysis. Intralesional treatments have unacceptably high local recurrence rates, making wide surgical resection the standard of care.

Question 4390

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 22-year-old male with a known history of multiple palpable bone bumps since childhood notes recent rapid growth and pain originating from a protuberance on his distal femur. MRI reveals an exophytic mass with marrow continuity and a peripheral cartilage cap measuring 2.5 cm in thickness. Which of the following gene mutations is characteristic of his underlying syndrome?

. GNAS
. EXT1/EXT2
. RUNX2
. COL1A1
. FGFR3

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS


Explanation

Hereditary multiple exostoses (HME) is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutations in the EXT1 or EXT2 genes, resulting in defective heparan sulfate synthesis. A cartilage cap thicker than 2 cm in an adult strongly suggests malignant transformation of an osteochondroma into a secondary chondrosarcoma.

Question 4391

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 35-year-old female presents with chronic, insidious swelling of her left knee and recurrent hemarthrosis despite no history of trauma. MRI displays extensive synovial thickening with a low signal intensity on T1 and T2, accompanied by severe blooming artifact on gradient-echo sequences. The pathogenesis of this condition involves a translocation resulting in the overexpression of which factor?

. VEGF
. RANKL
. CSF1
. TNF-alpha
. FGF23

Correct Answer & Explanation

. VEGF


Explanation

Pigmented villonodular synovitis (tenosynovial giant cell tumor) features a neoplastic clone of cells harboring a t(1;2) translocation. This causes overexpression of colony-stimulating factor 1 (CSF-1), which recruits a massive non-neoplastic inflammatory infiltrate of macrophages.

Question 4392

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 45-year-old male undergoes wide excision of a deep thigh mass. Histology demonstrates proliferating lipoblasts in a copious myxoid stroma with an intricate, arborizing "chicken-wire" capillary network. What specific cytogenetic abnormality defines this soft tissue sarcoma?

. t(X;18)
. t(12;16)
. t(11;22)
. t(2;13)
. t(9;22)

Correct Answer & Explanation

. t(X;18)


Explanation

Myxoid liposarcoma is characterized by the t(12;16) chromosomal translocation, fusing the FUS and DDIT3 genes. It is known for its distinct "chicken-wire" vascularity and an unusual propensity to metastasize to distant soft tissues and the spine rather than exclusively the lungs.

Question 4393

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 24-year-old male presents with dull, aching pain in his mid-back that awakens him at night. The pain is only partially relieved by NSAIDs. CT scan shows a 2.8 cm radiolucent, expansile lesion in the posterior elements of L3 with surrounding sclerosis. How does this lesion biologically differ most significantly from an osteoid osteoma?

. It lacks prostaglandin synthesis entirely
. It has a high rate of malignant transformation to osteosarcoma
. It demonstrates progressive growth larger than 2 cm
. It is uniformly unresponsive to radiofrequency ablation
. It frequently metastasizes to the lungs

Correct Answer & Explanation

. It lacks prostaglandin synthesis entirely


Explanation

Osteoblastoma is histologically identical to osteoid osteoma but is clinically distinguished by a size greater than 2 cm and a capacity for progressive local growth and bone destruction. Both lesions produce prostaglandins, though osteoblastoma pain tends to be less exquisitely responsive to NSAIDs.

Question 4394

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 24-year-old male presents with a slow-growing mass in the plantar aspect of his foot. Biopsy reveals a biphasic tumor with both epithelial and spindle cell components. Cytogenetic analysis reveals a t(X;18) translocation. Which of the following fusion genes is diagnostic of this patient's condition?

. SYT-SSX
. EWS-FLI1
. FUS-DDIT3
. PAX3-FOXO1
. EWS-ATF1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. SYT-SSX


Explanation

Synovial sarcoma is characterized by the t(X;18) translocation, resulting in the SYT-SSX fusion gene. It commonly presents in young adults in the extremities, notably the foot, ankle, and knee.

Question 4395

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 16-year-old boy presents with chronic knee pain. Radiographs show a well-circumscribed, eccentric, lytic lesion in the epiphysis of the proximal tibia. Biopsy demonstrates mononuclear cells, osteoclast-like giant cells, and a characteristic "chicken-wire" pattern of calcification. What is the most likely diagnosis?

. Chondroblastoma
. Giant cell tumor of bone
. Clear cell chondrosarcoma
. Aneurysmal bone cyst
. Osteoblastoma

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Chondroblastoma


Explanation

Chondroblastoma is a benign, locally aggressive bone tumor that classically occurs in the epiphysis or apophysis of skeletally immature patients. Histologically, it is defined by chondroblasts, giant cells, and pericellular "chicken-wire" calcification.

Question 4396

Topic: Bone Tumors

A 9-year-old girl is evaluated for a limp and a leg length discrepancy. Physical examination reveals large, irregularly bordered cafe-au-lait spots. Radiographs of the femur demonstrate a "ground-glass" appearance and a "shepherd's crook" deformity. An activating mutation in which of the following genes is responsible for this condition?

. GNAS
. EXT1
. NF1
. SQSTM1
. USP6

Correct Answer & Explanation

. GNAS


Explanation

This presentation is classic for McCune-Albright syndrome, which features polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, cafe-au-lait macules, and endocrinopathies. It is caused by an activating post-zygotic somatic mutation in the GNAS gene.

Question 4397

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 65-year-old man presents with worsening back pain and fatigue. Radiographs show multiple punched-out lytic lesions in his skull and pelvis. Laboratory studies reveal hypercalcemia and anemia. A bone marrow biopsy would most likely show a proliferation of cells strongly positive for which of the following surface markers?

. CD99
. CD138
. CD1a
. S100
. Cytokeratin

Correct Answer & Explanation

. CD138


Explanation

Multiple myeloma is a plasma cell dyscrasia characterized by CRAB symptoms (hyperCalcemia, Renal involvement, Anemia, Bone lesions). Neoplastic plasma cells classically express the surface marker CD138 (syndecan-1).

Question 4398

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 55-year-old man presents with bowel and bladder dysfunction alongside intractable sacral pain. Imaging reveals a destructive sacral midline mass.

Biopsy identifies large cells with vacuolated cytoplasm (physaliferous cells). Which immunohistochemical marker is highly sensitive and specific for confirming this diagnosis?

. Brachyury
. Cytokeratin
. Smooth Muscle Actin (SMA)
. Desmin
. CD34

Correct Answer & Explanation

. Brachyury


Explanation

Chordomas are locally aggressive malignant tumors arising from notochordal remnants, most commonly in the sacrum or clivus. They are histologically characterized by physaliferous cells and show strong nuclear expression of the transcription factor brachyury.

Question 4399

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 14-year-old girl presents with pain and swelling over her distal femur. Radiographs show an eccentric, expansile, lytic metaphyseal lesion. MRI demonstrates multiple fluid-fluid levels. Genetic analysis of this lesion would most likely show a rearrangement involving which of the following genes?

. USP6
. RUNX2
. MDM2
. EXT1
. TP53

Correct Answer & Explanation

. USP6


Explanation

Primary aneurysmal bone cysts (ABCs) are now known to be true neoplasms driven by translocations involving the USP6 gene on chromosome 17. Secondary ABCs arise in the context of other tumors and lack this specific genetic rearrangement.

Question 4400

Topic: 10. Pathology and Oncology

A 68-year-old man presents with a progressively enlarging, painful pelvic mass. Radiographs show a destructive lesion with intralesional "rings and arcs" calcifications.

Which of the following mutations is most frequently associated with this primary bone malignancy?

. IDH1/IDH2
. GNAS
. H3F3A
. RB1
. EXT1

Correct Answer & Explanation

. IDH1/IDH2


Explanation

Conventional chondrosarcomas frequently harbor point mutations in the isocitrate dehydrogenase genes (IDH1 or IDH2). These tumors typically present in adults over 50 with characteristic cartilage matrix calcifications.