This practice set contains high-yield board review questions covering key concepts in Surgical Anatomy & Approaches. Each clinical scenario is designed to test your diagnostic and management skills relevant to this subspecialty.
Question 1441
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with insidious onset of posterior shoulder pain and weakness. MRI reveals isolated atrophy of the teres minor. The entrapped nerve is located in a quadrilateral space bounded superiorly by which anatomic structure?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Teres minor
Explanation
Quadrilateral space syndrome involves compression of the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery. The space is bounded superiorly by the teres minor, inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the humeral shaft.
Question 1442
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 28-year-old weightlifter presents with isolated wasting of the infraspinatus muscle and weakness in external rotation. An MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is the most likely location of the cyst and the associated nerve compression?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch compressing the suprascapular nerve
Explanation
Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch typically causes isolated infraspinatus weakness and atrophy, as the motor branches to the supraspinatus have already departed the nerve proximal to this level.
Question 1443
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 35-year-old overhead athlete complains of posterior shoulder pain and numbness over the lateral deltoid. MRI shows isolated teres minor atrophy. Which vascular structure is most likely compressed along with the involved nerve?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior humeral circumflex artery
Explanation
Quadrilateral space syndrome involves compression of the axillary nerve and the posterior humeral circumflex artery, leading to lateral shoulder numbness and teres minor atrophy.
Question 1444
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During a deltopectoral approach to the shoulder, how far distal to the lateral acromion does the axillary nerve typically traverse the deep surface of the deltoid muscle?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 5 to 7 cm
Explanation
The axillary nerve generally crosses the deep surface of the deltoid approximately 5 to 7 cm distal to the lateral edge of the acromion. Care must be taken to avoid retractors or dissection that risks injury in this zone.
Question 1445
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During the deltopectoral approach to the shoulder, the cephalic vein is typically identified in the internervous plane between the deltoid and pectoralis major. To minimize the risk of bleeding from its major tributaries, the cephalic vein should ideally be retracted in which direction?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Laterally
Explanation
The cephalic vein is typically retracted laterally with the deltoid to preserve its major deltoid tributaries. Medial retraction risks avulsing these branches, leading to significant bleeding.
Question 1446
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 35-year-old recreational tennis player presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and paresthesias over the lateral deltoid. An MRI of the shoulder reveals isolated atrophy and fatty infiltration of the teres minor muscle. Which of the following structures is most likely compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axillary nerve
Explanation
Quadrilateral space syndrome involves compression of the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery. It classically presents with deltoid or teres minor weakness and is most specifically seen as isolated teres minor fatty infiltration on MRI.
Question 1447
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 28-year-old professional volleyball player presents with isolated weakness in external rotation of the dominant shoulder. Abduction strength is 5/5. MRI reveals a paralabral cyst. Where is the cyst most likely located and which nerve is compressed?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Spinoglenoid notch; Suprascapular nerve
Explanation
Compression of the suprascapular nerve at the spinoglenoid notch affects only the infraspinatus, causing isolated external rotation weakness. Compression at the suprascapular notch would affect both the supraspinatus and infraspinatus, causing weakness in both abduction and external rotation.
Question 1448
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 35-year-old overhead athlete complains of poorly localized posterior shoulder pain and fatigue with throwing. MRI demonstrates isolated atrophy and fatty infiltration of the teres minor muscle. Compression of the neurovascular bundle in the quadrilateral space is suspected. What structures are at risk in this anatomic space?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery
Explanation
Quadrilateral space syndrome involves compression of the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery. The space is bounded by the teres minor, teres major, long head of the triceps, and the surgical neck of the humerus.
Question 1449
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 65-year-old female sustains a displaced 3-part proximal humerus fracture. Examination reveals decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of the deltoid. Which nerve is most likely injured, and what primary muscle function should be tested?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axillary nerve; shoulder abduction
Explanation
The axillary nerve is frequently injured in proximal humerus fractures, presenting with numbness over the lateral deltoid (regimental badge area) and weakness in shoulder abduction due to deltoid denervation.
Question 1450
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A patient presents with a radial nerve palsy immediately following a closed midshaft humerus fracture. Electromyography at 4 weeks is consistent with a Sunderland Class II injury (axonotmesis). Which of the following best describes the microscopic pathology of the nerve at the injury site?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Disruption of the axon and myelin sheath but intact endoneurium
Explanation
In a Sunderland Class II nerve injury (axonotmesis), the axon and surrounding myelin sheath are disrupted, causing distal Wallerian degeneration. However, the endoneurial tube remains intact, providing an excellent scaffold for axonal regeneration.
Question 1451
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A patient sustains a closed midshaft humerus fracture and presents with an immediate complete radial nerve palsy. If an electromyogram (EMG) is obtained, at what time point after injury are fibrillation potentials most likely to first appear?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 2 to 3 weeks post-injury
Explanation
Fibrillation potentials and positive sharp waves are hallmark EMG signs of muscle denervation. They typically take 2 to 3 weeks to appear following the nerve injury as Wallerian degeneration progresses.
Question 1452
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
Following a closed humerus fracture, a patient demonstrates a complete radial nerve palsy. An electromyogram (EMG) at 4 weeks shows fibrillation potentials in the brachioradialis, but imaging confirms preserved continuity of the endoneurial tubes. According to the Seddon classification, this is best classified as:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Axonotmesis
Explanation
Axonotmesis involves disruption of the axon and myelin sheath but preservation of the supporting connective tissue framework (endoneurium, perineurium, epineurium). This preservation guides regenerating axons, allowing for potential spontaneous recovery following Wallerian degeneration.
Question 1453
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 28-year-old pitcher presents with vague posterior shoulder pain and isolated atrophy of the teres minor. An MRI demonstrates a paralabral cyst in the quadrilateral space. Which of the following borders the quadrilateral space superiorly?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Teres minor
Explanation
The quadrilateral space is bordered superiorly by the teres minor, inferiorly by the teres major, medially by the long head of the triceps, and laterally by the humeral shaft. It contains the axillary nerve and posterior humeral circumflex artery.
Question 1454
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A 35-year-old man sustains a spiral fracture of the distal third of the humeral shaft. On presentation, he is unable to extend his wrist or fingers. Which structure is at highest risk of entrapment or injury in this specific fracture pattern?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Radial nerve
Explanation
A Holstein-Lewis fracture is a spiral fracture of the distal third of the humerus, which carries a high risk (up to 22%) of radial nerve entrapment or palsy. The nerve is tethered as it passes through the lateral intermuscular septum.
Question 1455
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
A surgeon is utilizing the volar (Henry) approach to the proximal radius for open reduction and internal fixation of a radius fracture. Supination of the forearm during this approach protects which nerve by moving it radially and away from the surgical field?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Posterior interosseous nerve
Explanation
Supinating the forearm during the proximal Henry approach wraps the supinator muscle around the radius, moving the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) laterally and safely away from the surgical dissection.
Question 1456
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During a volar (Henry) approach to the proximal radius, what structure marks the proximal edge of the superficial layer of the supinator muscle where the posterior interosseous nerve enters?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Arcade of Frohse
Explanation
The Arcade of Frohse is a fibrous arch at the proximal edge of the superficial head of the supinator muscle. It is the most common site of compression for the posterior interosseous nerve (PIN) and must be protected during the Henry approach.
Question 1457
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During a lateral approach to the humerus, the radial nerve is at risk as it pierces the lateral intermuscular septum. At approximately what distance proximal to the lateral epicondyle does this occur?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 10 cm
Explanation
The radial nerve pierces the lateral intermuscular septum to pass from the posterior to the anterior compartment approximately 10 cm proximal to the lateral epicondyle. Knowledge of this landmark is critical during lateral and anterolateral approaches to the distal humerus.
Question 1458
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During a lateral approach to the fibula for ORIF of an ankle fracture, the superficial peroneal nerve must be protected. This nerve typically pierces the deep fascia to become subcutaneous at what distance proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. 10-12 cm
Explanation
The superficial peroneal nerve typically transitions from the lateral compartment deep to the fascia to become subcutaneous approximately 10 to 12 cm proximal to the tip of the lateral malleolus. It is highly vulnerable to injury during lateral surgical approaches in this zone.
Question 1459
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
The quadrangular space transmits the axillary nerve and posterior circumflex humeral artery. Which muscle forms the inferior anatomical border of this space?
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Teres minor
Explanation
The borders of the quadrangular space are the teres minor (superior), teres major (inferior), long head of the triceps (medial), and surgical neck of the humerus (lateral).
Question 1460
Topic: Surgical Anatomy & Approaches
During the ilioinguinal approach to the acetabulum, severe hemorrhage can occur if the corona mortis is inadvertently transected. This vascular structure is an anastomosis between the:
Correct Answer & Explanation
. Inferior epigastric and obturator vessels
Explanation
The corona mortis ('crown of death') is an anatomical vascular anastomosis between the external iliac system (usually the inferior epigastric artery or vein) and the obturator vessels. It is located on the posterior aspect of the superior pubic ramus.
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